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SUP 4

Actuaries

SUP 4.1

Application

SUP 4.1.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
This chapter applies to:
(1) every firm within a category listed in column (1) of the table in SUP 4.1.3 R; and
(2) every actuary appointed under this chapter;
in accordance with column (2) of that table.

SUP 4.1.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This chapter applies to long-term insurers (including friendly societies) and other friendly societies and to the Society of Lloyd's and managing agents at Lloyd's. This chapter does not apply to actuaries advising the auditors of long-term insurers under IPRU(INS) 9.35(1A) or IPRU(FSOC) 5.11(2A), as they are not appointed to act on behalf of the firm.

SUP 4.1.3

See Notes

handbook-rule

Applicable sections

SUP 4.2

Purpose

SUP 4.2.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Section 340 of the Act gives the PRA power to make rules requiring an authorised person, or an authorised person falling into a specified class, to appoint an actuary . Section 340 further empowers the PRA to make rules governing the manner, timing and notification of such an appointment and, where an appointment is not made, for the PRA to make an appointment on the firm's behalf. The rule-making powers of the PRA and FCAunder section 340 of the Act also extend to an actuary's duties.

SUP 4.2.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance

This chapter defines the relationship between firms and their actuaries and clarifies the role which actuaries play in the appropriate regulator's monitoring of firms' compliance with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system. The chapter sets out rules and guidance on the appointment of actuaries, and the termination of their term of office, as well as setting out their respective rights and duties. The purpose of the chapter is to ensure that:

  1. (1) long-term insurers (other than certain friendly societies) have access to adequate actuarial advice, both in valuing their liabilities to policyholders and in exercising discretion affecting the interests of their with-profits policyholders; and
  2. (2) other friendly societies carrying on insurance business (and which have traditionally relied upon actuarial expertise) employ or use an actuary of appropriate seniority and experience to evaluate the liabilities of that business; and
  3. (3) managing agents of Lloyd's syndicates employ or use an actuary of appropriate seniority and experience to evaluate the liabilities associated with insurance business carried on at Lloyd's.

SUP 4.2.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The functions described by SUP 4.2.2.G (1) are performed by one or more actuaries who are required to hold office continuously and must be approved persons. The principal duty of an actuary appointed to perform these functions is to advise the firm (see SUP 4.3.13 R to SUP 4.3.18 G for the rights and duties of such an actuary).

SUP 4.2.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The function described by SUP 4.2.2 G (2) is performed by an appropriate actuary who is appointed to prepare the triennial investigation and interim certificate or statement required by IPRU(FSOC) 5.2(1) (see SUP 4.4.6 R and SUP 4.5.12 G to SUP 4.5.14 G for the rights and duties of an appropriate actuary).

SUP 4.2.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Actuaries act as a valuable source of information to the appropriate regulator in carrying out its functions. For example, in determining whether a firm satisfies the threshold conditions, the appropriate regulator has regard to whether the firm has appointed an actuary with sufficient experience in the areas of business to be conducted by the firm.

SUP 4.2.6

See Notes

handbook-guidance
In making appointments under this chapter and in allocating duties to actuaries, firms are reminded of their obligation under SYSC 2.1.1 R to maintain a clear and appropriate apportionment of significant responsibilities so that it is clear who has which of those responsibilities and that the business and affairs of the firm can be adequately monitored and controlled by the directors, relevant senior managers and governing body of the firm.

SUP 4.3

Appointment of actuaries

Appointment by firms

SUP 4.3.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
A firm to which this section applies (see SUP 4.1) must:
(1) appoint one or more actuaries to perform:
(a) the actuarial function (see SUP 4.3.13 R) in respect of all classes of its long-term insurance business; and
(b) the with-profits actuary function (see SUP 4.3.16A R) in respect of all classes of its with-profits business (if any);
(2) notify the PRA , without delay, when it is aware that a vacancy in the office of any such actuary will arise or has arisen, giving the reason for the vacancy;
(3) appoint an actuary to fill any such vacancy that has arisen; and
(4) ensure a replacement actuary can take up office at the time the vacancy arises or as soon as is reasonably practicable after that.

SUP 4.3.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The provisions relating to the duties of an actuary appointed to perform these functions are set out in SUP 4.3.13 R to SUP 4.3.18 G. The functions performed by actuaries appointed by a firm under SUP 4.3.1 R are specified as controlled functions (CF 12, the actuarial function, and CF 12A, the with-profits actuary function) in SUP 10B ( PRA- Approved persons). As a result, an application must be made to the PRA under section 60 of the Act (Applications for approval) for approval by the PRA with the consent of the FCA of the person proposing to take up such an appointment. Section 61(3) of the Act (Determination of applications) gives the PRA three months to grant its approval or give a warning notice that it proposes to refuse the application. A firm should not appoint an actuary until the PRA with the consent of the FCA has approved the actuary. In order to comply with SUP 4.3.1 R, a firm should ensure it applies to the PRA as soon as practicable before the date when it needs the actuary to take office. The PRA will need time to consider the application before deciding whether to grant approval. See SUP 10B ( PRA- Approved persons).

Appointment by the PRA

SUP 4.3.3

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a firm, which is required to appoint one or more actuaries under SUP 4.3.1 R, fails to do so within 28 days of a vacancy arising, the PRA may appoint one or more actuaries to perform any function corresponding to the actuarial function or the with-profits actuary function on the following terms:
(1) the actuary to be remunerated by the firm on the basis agreed between the actuary and the firm or, in the absence of agreement, on a reasonable basis; and
(2) the actuary to hold office until he resigns or the firm appoints another actuary.

SUP 4.3.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
SUP 4.3.3 R allows but does not require the PRA to appoint an actuary if the firm has failed to do so within the 28 day period. When it considers whether to use this power, the PRA will take into account the likely delay until the firm can make an appointment and the urgency of any pending duties of the actuary.

SUP 4.3.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The PRA will not normally seek to appoint an actuary under SUP 4.3.3 R if a notification under SUP 10B ( PRA- Approved persons) has been received from the firm in relation to a proposed appointment of an actuary under SUP 4.3.1 R, and that application is still being considered.

SUP 4.3.6

See Notes

handbook-rule
A firm must comply with and is bound by the terms on which an actuary has been appointed by the PRA under SUP 4.3.3 R.

SUP 4.3.7

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If the PRA appoints an actuary under SUP 4.3.3 R, he will not be an approved person (not being appointed under SUP 4.3.1 R). However, the firm is still under an obligation to appoint an actuary under SUP 4.3.1 R and will need to seek prior approval of that person (even if the individual it proposes to appoint is the person who has been appointed by the PRA under SUP 4.3.3 R).

Actuaries' qualifications

SUP 4.3.8

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The appropriate regulator is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under this section has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the appropriate regulator's rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.

SUP 4.3.9

See Notes

handbook-rule
Before a firm applies for approval of the person it proposes to appoint as an actuary under SUP 4.3.1 R, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the actuary:
(1) has the required skill and experience to perform his functions under the regulatory system; and
(2) is a Fellow of the Institute of Actuaries or of the Faculty of Actuaries.

SUP 4.3.10

See Notes

handbook-guidance
To comply with SUP 4.3.9 R and Principle 3, before an actuary takes up his appointment the firm should ensure that the actuary:
(1) has skills and experience appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business and the requirements and standards under the regulatory system to which it is subject; and
(2) has adequate qualifications and experience, which includes holding an appropriate practising certificate under the rules of the Institute of Actuaries or the Faculty of Actuaries;
and seek confirmation of these from the actuary, or the actuary's current and previous employers, as appropriate.

Disqualified actuaries

SUP 4.3.11

See Notes

handbook-rule
A firm must not appoint under SUP 4.3.1 R an actuary who is disqualified by the FCA under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm.

SUP 4.3.12

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If it appears to the FCA or PRA that an actuary has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it have the power to and may disqualify him under section 345 or 345A respectively of the Act. A list of actuaries who are disqualified may be found on the FCA website ( http://www.fca.org.uk ).

SUP 4.3.12A

See Notes

handbook-rule
A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that an actuary who is to be, or has been, appointed under SUP 4.3.1 R:
(1) does not perform the function of chairman or chief executive of the firm, or does not, if he is to perform the with-profits actuary function, become a member of the firm's governing body; and
(2) does not perform any other function on behalf of the firm which could give rise to a significant conflict of interest.

SUP 4.3.12B

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Both the actuarial function and the with-profits actuary function may be performed by employees of the firm or by external consultants, and performing other functions on behalf of the firm will not necessarily give rise to a significant conflict of interest. However, being a director, or a senior manager responsible, say, for sales or marketing in a firm (or for finance in a proprietary firm), is likely to give rise to a significant conflict of interest for an actuary performing the with-profits actuary function. He nevertheless retains direct access to the firm's governing body under SUP 4.3.17 R (2).

The actuarial function

SUP 4.3.13

See Notes

handbook-rule
An actuary appointed to perform the actuarial function must, in respect of those classes of the firm's long-term insurance business which are covered by his appointment:
(1) advise the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, on the risks the firm runs in so far as they may have a material impact on the firm's ability to meet liabilities to policyholders in respect of long-term insurance contracts as they fall due and on the capital needed to support the business, including regulatory capital requirements;
(2) monitor those risks and inform the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, if he has any material concerns or good reason to believe that the firm:
(a) is not meeting liabilities to policyholders under long-term insurance contracts as they fall due, or may not be doing so, or might not have done so, or might, in reasonably foreseeable circumstances, not do so;
(b) is, or may be, effecting new long-term insurance contracts on terms under which the resulting income earned is insufficient, under reasonable actuarial methods and assumptions, and taking into account the other financial resources that are available for the purpose, to enable the firm to meet its liabilities to policyholders as they fall due (including reasonable bonus expectations);
(c) does not, or may not, have sufficient financial resources to meet liabilities to policyholders as they fall due (including reasonable bonus expectations) and the capital needed to support the business, including regulatory capital requirements or, if the firm currently has sufficient resources, might, in reasonably foreseeable circumstances, not continue to have them;
(3) advise the firm's governing body on the methods and assumptions to be used for the investigations required by IPRU(INS) 9.4R or IPRU(FSOC) 5.1R and the calculation of the with-profits insurance capital component under INSPRU 1.3 as applicable;
(4) perform those investigations and calculations in (3), in accordance with the methods and assumptions determined by the firm'sgoverning body;
(5) report to the firm's governing body on the results of those investigations and calculations in (3); and
(6) in the case of a friendly society to which this section applies, perform the functions of the appropriate actuary under section 87 (Actuary's report as to margin of solvency) of the Friendly Societies Act 1992.

SUP 4.3.14

See Notes

handbook-guidance
IPRU(INS) 9.4R and IPRU(FSOC) 5.1R require firms to which this section applies to cause an investigation to be made at least yearly by the actuary or actuaries appointed to perform the actuarial function, and to report on the result of that investigation. INSPRU 1.3 requires realistic basis life firms to calculate the with-profits insurance component as part of their capital resources requirements.The firm is responsible for the methods and assumptions used to determine the liabilities attributable to its long-term insurance business. The obligation on friendly societies to obtain a report from the 'appropriate actuary' under section 87 of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 applies to a friendly society which is to receive a transfer of engagements under section 86 (transfer of engagements to or by a friendly society). The 'appropriate actuary' in this context is the actuary appointed to perform the actuarial function, rather than the appropriate actuary under SUP 4.4 (Appropriate actuaries).

SUP 4.3.15

See Notes

handbook-guidance
SUP 4.3.13 R is not intended to be exhaustive of the professional advice that a firm should take whether from an actuary appointed under this chapter or from any other actuary acting for the firm. Firms should consider what systems and controls are needed to ensure that they obtain appropriate professional advice on financial and risk analysis; for example:
(1) risk identification, quantification and monitoring;
(2) stress and scenario testing;
(3) ongoing financial conditions;
(4) financial projections for business planning;
(5) investment strategy and asset-liability matching;
(6) individual capital assessment;
(7) pricing of business, including unit pricing;
(8) variation of any charges for benefits or expenses;
(9) discretionary surrender charges; and
(10) adequacy of reinsurance protection.

The with-profits actuary function

SUP 4.3.16

See Notes

handbook-rule
An actuary appointed to perform the with-profits actuary functions must:
(1) advise the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, on key aspects of the discretion to be exercised affecting those classes of the with-profits business of the firm in respect of which he has been appointed;
(2) where the firm is a realistic basis life firm advise the firm's governing body as to whether the assumptions used to calculate the with-profits insurance component under INSPRU 1.3 are consistent with the firm's PPFM in respect of those classes of the firm's with-profits business;
(3) at least once a year, report to the firm's governing body on key aspects (including those aspects of the firm's application of its Principles and Practices of Financial Management on which the advice described in (1) has been given) of the discretion exercised in respect of the period covered by his report affecting those classes of with-profits business of the firm;
(4) request from the firm such information and explanations as he reasonably considers necessary to enable him properly to perform the duties in (1) to (3);
(5) advise the firm as to the data and systems that he reasonably considers necessary to be kept and maintained to provide the duties in (4); and
(6) in the case of a friendly society to which this section applies, perform the function of appropriate actuary under section 12 (Reinsurance) of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 or section 23A (Reinsurance) of the Friendly Societies Act 1974 as applicable, in respect of those classes of its with-profits business covered by his appointment.

SUP 4.4

Appropriate actuaries

Appointment of an appropriate actuary

SUP 4.4.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
A firm to which this section applies (see SUP 4.1) and required by IPRU(FSOC) 5.2(1) to ensure that an investigation is carried out must:
(1) appoint an actuary (the "appropriate actuary") to carry out the triennial investigation and prepare an abstract of the report as required by IPRU(FSOC) 5.2(2) and provide the interim certificate or statement as required by IPRU(FSOC) 5.2(3); and
(2) appoint a replacement for that actuary if he ceases to hold office before he has carried out the duty described in (1).

Appropriate actuaries' qualifications

SUP 4.4.2

See Notes

handbook-rule
Before a friendly society appoints an appropriate actuary, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the actuary is a Fellow of the Institute of Actuaries or of the Faculty of Actuaries.

SUP 4.4.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
An appropriate actuary should have skills and experience appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business and the requirements and standards under the regulatory system to which it is subject. A firm should have regard to whether its proposed appropriate actuary has adequate qualifications and experience, and seek confirmation of this from the actuary, or the actuary's current and previous employers, as appropriate.

SUP 4.4.4

See Notes

handbook-rule
A firm must not appoint as appropriate actuary an actuary who has been disqualified by the FCA under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm.

SUP 4.4.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If it appears to the FCA or PRA that an appropriate actuary has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may have the power to and may disqualify him under section 345 or 345A respectivelyof the Act. A list of actuaries who have been disqualified may be found on the FCA website ( http://www.fca.org.uk ).

Specific duties of the appropriate actuary

SUP 4.4.6

See Notes

handbook-rule
An appropriate actuary must carry out the triennial investigation and prepare an abstract of the report as required by IPRU(FSOC) 5.2(2) and provide the interim certificate or statement as required by IPRU(FSOC) 5.2(3).

SUP 4.5

Provisions applicable to all actuaries

Objectivity

SUP 4.5.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
An actuary appointed under this chapter must be objective in performing his duties.

SUP 4.5.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Objectivity requires the actuary to perform his duties in such a manner that he can have an honest belief in his work and does not compromise the quality of his work or his judgment. An actuary should not allow himself to be placed in situations where he feels unable to make objective professional judgments.

SUP 4.5.3

See Notes

handbook-rule
An actuary appointed under this chapter must take reasonable steps to satisfy himself that he is free from bias, or from any conflict of interest from which bias may reasonably be inferred. He must take appropriate action where this is not the case.

SUP 4.5.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The appropriate action may include asking the firm's governing body to re-assign temporarily some or all of his duties to another competent actuary. Where this is insufficient, the actuary should resign his office.

SUP 4.5.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If the actuary is an employee of the firm, the ordinary incentives of employment, including profit-related pay, share options or other financial interests in the firm or any associate, give rise to a conflict of interest only where they are disproportionate, or exceptional, relative to those of other employees of equivalent seniority.

SUP 4.5.6

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The guidance and professional conduct standards in current issue from the Institute of Actuaries and the Faculty of Actuaries are relevant to compliance with SUP 4.5.1 R and SUP 4.5.3 R.

Actuaries' statutory duty to report

SUP 4.5.7

See Notes

handbook-guidance
(1) Actuaries appointed under this chapter made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.
(2) These regulations oblige actuaries to report certain matters to the appropriate regulator. Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that an actuary does not contravene any duty by giving information or expressing an opinion to the appropriate regulator, if he is acting in good faith and he reasonably believes that the information or opinion is relevant to any functions of the appropriate regulator. These provisions continue to have effect after the end of the actuary's term of appointment.

SUP 4.5.7A

See Notes

handbook-guidance
In relation to Lloyd's, an effect of the insurance market direction set out in Lloyd's (Auditors and Actuaries) 2 of the PRA Rulebook is that sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator) apply also to actuaries who are appointed to evaluate the long-term insurance business of a syndicate.

Termination of term of office

SUP 4.5.8

See Notes

handbook-guidance
SUP 4.5.9 R to SUP 4.5.11 G apply to a person who is or has been an actuary appointed under this chapter.

SUP 4.5.9

See Notes

handbook-rule
An actuary appointed under this chapter must notify the appropriate regulator without delay if he:
(1) is removed from office by a firm; or
(2) resigns before his term of office expires; or
(3) is not reappointed by a firm.

SUP 4.5.10

See Notes

handbook-rule
An actuary who has ceased to be appointed under this chapter, or who has been formally notified that he will cease to be so appointed, must notify the appropriate regulator without delay:
(1) of any matter connected with the cessation which he thinks ought to be drawn to the appropriate regulator's attention; or
(2) that there is no such matter.

SUP 4.5.11

See Notes

handbook-guidance
When an actuary appointed under SUP 4.3.1 R ceases to hold office, he ceases to perform a controlled function. A firm is therefore required under SUP 10B.12.10 R to tell the PRA within seven business days of its actuary ceasing to hold office and to complete a withdrawal form (Form C, SUP 10A Annex 6 R). Note also the requirement of SUP 10B.12.12 R in relation to qualified withdrawals.

Rights and duties

SUP 4.5.12

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Section 341 of the Act (Access to books etc.) provides that an actuary appointed under or as a result of the Act:
(1) has a right of access at all times to the firm's books, accounts and vouchers; and
(2) is entitled to require from the firm's officers such information and explanation as he reasonably considers necessary to perform his duties as actuary.

SUP 4.5.13

See Notes

handbook-rule
When carrying out his duties, an actuary appointed under this chapter must pay due regard to generally accepted actuarial practice.

SUP 4.5.14

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The standards and guidance issued from time to time by the Institute of Actuariesandthe Faculty of Actuaries are important sources of generally accepted actuarial practice.

SUP 4.6

Lloyd's

Appointment of the Lloyd's actuary and syndicate actuaries

SUP 4.6.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
The Society must:
(1) appoint an actuary to perform the Lloyd's actuary function ;
(2) notify the PRA, without delay, when it is aware that a vacancy in the office of Lloyd's actuary will arise or has arisen, giving the reason for the vacancy;
(3) appoint an actuary to fill any vacancy in the office of Lloyd's actuary that has arisen; and
(4) ensure that the replacement actuary can take up office at the time the vacancy arises or as soon as reasonably practicable after that.

SUP 4.6.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The functions performed by the actuary appointed as the Lloyd's actuary under SUP 4.6.1 R are specified as controlled functions in SUP 10B ( PRA- Approved persons ). As a result, an application must be made to the PRA under section 60 of the Act (Applications for approval) for approval of the person proposing to take up such an appointment. Section 61(3) of the Act (Determination of applications) gives the PRA three months to grant its approval or give a warning notice that it proposes to refuse the application. An actuary should not be appointed until the PRA with the consent of the FCA has approved the actuary. In order to comply with SUP 4.6.1 R, the Society should ensure it applies to the PRA as soon as practicable before the date when it needs the actuary to take office. The PRA will need time to consider the application before deciding whether to grant approval.

Qualifications

SUP 4.6.3

See Notes

handbook-rule
Before the Society applies for approval of its proposed appointment of the Lloyd's actuary under SUP 4.6.1 R, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the actuary:
(1) has the required skill and experience to perform his functions under the regulatory system; and
(2) is a Fellow of the Institute of Actuaries or of the Faculty of Actuaries.

SUP 4.6.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
To comply with SUP 4.6.3 R and Principle 3, before the Lloyd's actuary takes up his appointment the Society should ensure that the actuary:
(1) has skills and experience appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of the Society's business and the requirements and standards under the regulatory system to which it is subject; and
(2) has adequate qualifications and experience, which includes holding an appropriate practising certificate under the rules of the Institute of Actuaries or the Faculty of Actuaries;

and seek confirmation of these from the actuary, or the actuary's current and previous employers, as appropriate.

Disqualified actuaries

SUP 4.6.5

See Notes

handbook-rule
The Society must not appoint under SUP 4.6.1 R as Lloyd's actuary an actuary who is disqualified by the FCA under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA) from acting:
(1) as an actuary for the Society; or
(2) as a syndicate actuary; or
(3) as an actuary for any other relevant class of firm.

SUP 4.6.6

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If it appears to the FCA or PRA that an actuary has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may have the power to and may disqualify him under section 345 or 345A respectively of the Act. A list of actuaries who are disqualified may be found on the FCA website.

Conflicts of interest

SUP 4.6.7

See Notes

handbook-rule
The Society must take reasonable steps to ensure that an actuary who is to be, or has been, appointed under SUP 4.6.1 R:
(1) does not perform the function of chairman or chief executive of the Society; and
(2) does not perform any other function on behalf of the Society which could give rise to a significant conflict of interest.

The Lloyd's actuary function

SUP 4.6.8

See Notes

handbook-rule
An actuary who has been appointed to perform the Lloyd's actuary function must:
(1) prepare the statement required under IPRU(INS) 9.58 (1) to be annexed to the Lloyd's Return; and
(2) take reasonable steps to ensure that the general insurance business technical provisions for each syndicate year have been reviewed by the syndicate actuary and that an appropriate opinion has been obtained under SUP 4.6.15 R; and
(3) where a syndicate actuary's opinion has not been provided, sets appropriate technical provisions and, within six months of the end of the financial year, submits a report to the PRA on the setting of those technical provisions.

Appointment of syndicate actuaries

SUP 4.6.9

See Notes

handbook-rule
Each managing agent must, in respect of each syndicate it manages:
(1) appoint an actuary (the "syndicate actuary") to carry out the duties described in SUP 4.6.15 R or SUP 4.6.16 R; and
(2) appoint a replacement for that actuary if he ceases to hold office before he has carried out the duties described in SUP 4.6.15 R or SUP 4.6.16 R; and
(3) ensure that the replacement syndicate actuary can take up office at the time the vacancy arises or as soon as reasonably practicable after that.

SUP 4.6.10

See Notes

handbook-guidance
(1) The insurance market direction and guidance set out in SUP 3.1.4 G to SUP 3.1.15 G is relevant to actuaries appointed to report on the insurance business of members.
(2) References in SUP 4, as applied by SUP 4.1.3 R, to a firm include, where appropriate:
(a) a managing agent; and
(b) one or more member carrying on insurance business at Lloyd's policy through a syndicate;

and references to an actuary of a firm should be read accordingly.

Syndicate actuaries' qualifications

SUP 4.6.11

See Notes

handbook-rule
Before a managing agent appoints a syndicate actuary, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the syndicate actuary:
(1) has the required skill and experience to perform his duties; and
(2) is a fellow of an actuarial body or (except for a syndicate actuary of a long-term insurance business syndicate) is a fellow of the Casualty Actuarial Society who is a member of an actuarial body.

SUP 4.6.12

See Notes

handbook-guidance
To comply with SUP 4.6.11 R and Principle 3, before a syndicate actuary takes up his appointment a managing agent should ensure that the syndicate actuary:
(1) has skills and experience appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of a syndicate's business and the requirements and standards under the regulatory system applicable to the activities of managing agents in relation to each syndicate which they manage; and
(2) has adequate qualifications and experience, which includes holding an appropriate practising certificate under the rules of the Institute of Actuaries or the Faculty of Actuaries;

and seeks confirmation of these from the syndicate actuary, or the syndicate actuary's current and previous employers, as appropriate.

Disqualified actuaries

SUP 4.6.13

See Notes

handbook-rule
A managing agent must not appoint under SUP 4.6.9 R as syndicate actuary an actuary who is disqualified by the FCA under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA) from acting:
(1) as a syndicate actuary; or
(2) as a Lloyd's actuary; or
(3) as an actuary for a relevant class of firm.

SUP 4.6.14

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If it appears to the FCA or PRA that an actuary has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may have the power to and may disqualify him under section 345 or 345A respectively of the Act. A list of actuaries who are disqualified may be found on the FCA website.

Duties of syndicate actuaries

SUP 4.6.15

See Notes

handbook-rule
The syndicate actuary of a long-term insurance business syndicate must:
(1) make an investigation at the end of each financial year into the financial condition of the business carried on through each syndicate year (other than a closed year);
(2) make an abstract of his report of the investigation; and
(3) prepare the certificate required under IPRU(INS) 9.58 (3) to be annexed to the Lloyd's Return.

SUP 4.6.16

See Notes

handbook-rule
The syndicate actuary of a general insurance business syndicate must:
(1) review the technical provisions (both gross and net of reinsurance recoveries) of each syndicate year (other than a closed year); and
(2) provide his opinion confirming that the technical provisions for each syndicate year are no less prudent than his best estimate of the amounts required.

SUP 4.6.17

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a managing agent becomes aware that the syndicate actuary of a general insurance business syndicate will or may be unable to produce an unqualified opinion under SUP 4.6.16 R, the managing agent must promptly inform the PRA that this is the case.

SUP 4.6.18

See Notes

handbook-rule
In carrying out his duties a syndicate actuary must pay due regard to generally accepted actuarial best practice.

SUP 4.6.19

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The standards and guidance issued by the Institute of Actuaries and the Faculty of Actuaries are important sources of actuarial best practice.

Export chapter as

SUP 10B

PRA Approved Persons

SUP 10B.1

Application

General

SUP 10B.1.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
This chapter applies to every PRA-authorised person.

SUP 10B.1.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This chapter is also relevant to every PRA-approved person.

SUP 10B.1.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The rules in this chapter specify descriptions of PRA controlled functions under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements).

SUP 10B.1.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The directions in this chapter relate to the manner in which a firm must apply for the PRA's approval under section 59 of the Act and other procedures.

Overseas firms: UK services

SUP 10B.1.5

See Notes

handbook-rule
This chapter does not apply to an overseas firm in relation to regulated activities which are carried on in the United Kingdom other than from an establishment maintained by it or its appointed representative in the United Kingdom.

Overseas firms: UK establishments

SUP 10B.1.6

See Notes

handbook-rule
Only the following PRA controlled functions apply to an overseas firm which maintains an establishment in the United Kingdom from which regulated activities are carried on:
(1) the director function where the person performing that function:
(a) has responsibility for the regulated activities of a UKbranch which are likely to enable him to exercise significant influence over that branch; or
(b) is someone whose decisions or actions are regularly taken into account by the governing body of that branch;
(2) the non-executive director function where the person performing that function:
(a) has responsibility for the regulated activities of a UKbranch which is likely to enable him to exercise significant influence over that branch; or
(b) is someone whose decisions or actions are regularly taken into account by the governing body of that branch;

Incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms

SUP 10B.1.7

See Notes

handbook-rule
This chapter does not apply to:if and in so far as the question of whether a person is fit and proper to perform a particular function in relation to that firm is reserved, under any of the Single Market Directives, the Treaty or the auction regulation, to an authority in a country or territory outside the United Kingdom.

SUP 10B.1.8

See Notes

handbook-guidance
SUP 10B.1.7 R reflects the provisions of section 59(8) of the Act and, in relation to an incoming Treaty firm the Treaty. It preserves the principle of Home State prudential regulation. In relation to an incoming EEA firm exercising an EEA right, or an incoming Treaty firm exercising a Treaty right, the effect is to reserve to the Home State regulator the assessment of the fitness and propriety of a person performing a function in the exercise of that right. A member of the governing body, or the notified UKbranch manager, of an incoming EEA firm, acting in that capacity, will not therefore have to be approved by the PRA under the Act.

SUP 10B.1.9

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Notwithstanding SUP 10B.1.8 G, an incoming EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer) or incoming Treaty firm will have had to consider the impact of the Host State rules with which it is required to comply when carrying on a passported activity or Treaty activity through a branch in the United Kingdom. An incoming EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer) will have been notified of those provisions under Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act in the course of satisfying the conditions for authorisation in the United Kingdom.

SUP 10B.1.10

See Notes

handbook-guidance
An incoming EEA firm will have to consider, for example, the position of a branch manager based in the United Kingdom who may also be performing a function in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity not covered by the EEA right of the firm. In so far as the function is within the description of a PRA controlled function, the firm will need to seek approval for that person to perform that PRA controlled function.

Incoming EEA firms: passported activities from a branch

SUP 10B.1.11

See Notes

handbook-rule
None of the PRA controlled functions apply to an incoming EEA firm with respect to its passported activities carried on from a branch in the United Kingdom.

Incoming EEA firms etc with top-up permission activities from a UK branch

SUP 10B.1.12

See Notes

handbook-rule
In relation to the activities of a firm for which it has a top-up permission, only the PRA required functions apply.

Committees of the Society of Lloyd's

SUP 10B.1.13

See Notes

handbook-rule
For the purpose of SUP 10B.6.1 R (the director function), "director" includes an executive member of a committee to which the Council of the Society of Lloyd's directly delegates authority to carry out the Society's regulatory functions.

SUP 10B.1.14

See Notes

handbook-rule
For the purpose of SUP 10B.6.3 R (the non-executive director function), "non-executive director" includes a non-executive member of a committee to which the Council of the Society of Lloyd's directly delegates authority to carry out the Society's regulatory functions.

Insolvency practitioners

SUP 10B.1.15

See Notes

handbook-rule
This chapter does not apply to a function performed by:
(1) a person acting as an insolvency practitioner within the meaning of section 388 of the Insolvency Act 1986; or
(2) a person acting as a nominee in relation to a voluntary arrangement under Parts I (Company Voluntary Arrangements) and VIII (Individual Voluntary Arrangements) of the Insolvency Act 1986; or
(3) a person acting as an insolvency practitioner within the meaning of Article 3 of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989; or
(4) a person acting as a nominee in relation to a voluntary arrangement under Parts II (Company Voluntary Arrangements) and VIII (Individual Voluntary arrangements) of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989.

Appointed representatives

SUP 10B.1.16

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The PRA has no special rule relating to appointed representatives. Therefore, SUP 10B applies to an appointed representative of a firm in the same way as it does to any other contractor of the firm (see SUP 10B.3.1 R). In practice in SUP 10B the main application to appointed representatives of a firm will be to people seconded by the appointed representative to the firm.

SUP 10B.2

Purpose

SUP 10B.2.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The immediate purpose of SUP 10B.3 to SUP 10B.9 is to specify, under section 59 of the Act, descriptions of the PRA controlled functions which are listed in SUP 10B.4.3 R. The underlying purpose is to establish, and mark the boundaries of, the PRA's "approved persons regime".

SUP 10B.3

Basic rules for all PRA controlled functions

The need for an arrangement

SUP 10B.3.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
A function is a PRA controlled function only to the extent that it is performed under an arrangement entered into by:
(1) a firm; or
(2) a contractor of the firm;
in relation to the carrying on by the firm of a regulated activity.

SUP 10B.3.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Sections 59(1) and (2) of the Act provide that approval is necessary in respect of a PRA controlled function which is performed under an arrangement entered into by a firm, or its contractor (typically an appointed representative), in relation to a regulated activity.

SUP 10B.3.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Arrangement is defined in section 59(10) of the Act as any kind of arrangement for the performance of a function which is entered into by a firm or any of its contractors with another person and includes the appointment of a person to an office, his becoming a partner, or his employment (whether under a contract of service or otherwise). For the provisions in this chapter relating to outsourcing, see SUP 10B.11.6 G and SUP 10B.11.7 G.

SUP 10B.3.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If, however, a firm is a member of a group, and the arrangements for the performance of a PRA controlled function of the firm are made by, say, the holding company, the person performing the function will only require approval if there is an arrangement (under section 59(1)) or a contract (under section 59(2)) between the firm and holding company permitting this. This need not be a written contract but could arise, for example, by conduct, custom and practice.

SUP 10B.3.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The arrangement must be "in relation to" the carrying on of a regulated activity. Regulated activities are defined in the Glossary by reference to the Regulated Activities Order. This order prescribes the activities which are regulated activities for the purposes of the Act.

Significant-influence functions

SUP 10B.3.6

See Notes

handbook-rule
Each PRA controlled function is one which comes within the definition of a significant-influence function.

SUP 10B.3.7

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Section 59(6) of the Act says that the PRA may specify a description of function as a PRA controlled function only if, in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by a firm, it is satisfied that the function is a significant-influence function.

SUP 10B.3.8

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Section 59(7B) of the Act says that a significant-influence function, in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by a firm, means a function that is likely to enable the person responsible for its performance to exercise a significant influence on the conduct of the firm's affairs, so far as relating to the activity.

SUP 10B.3.9

See Notes

handbook-guidance
SUP 10B.3.6 R gives effect to sections 59(6) and 59(7B) of the Act.

SUP 10B.3.10

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Whether a function is likely to result in the person responsible for its performance exercising significant influence on the conduct of the firm's affairs is a question of fact in each case. The PRA has identified the PRA controlled functions as satisfying this condition.

Actions for damages

SUP 10B.3.11

See Notes

handbook-rule
A contravention of the rules in SUP 10B (other than SUP 10B.1 to SUP 10B.9) gives rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(1) of the Act as a provision giving rise to such a right of action).

SUP 10B.4

Specification of functions

SUP 10B.4.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
Each of the functions described in SUP 10B.4.3 R (the table of PRA controlled functions) is a PRA controlled function.

SUP 10B.4.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The fact that a person may be approved for one purpose does not have the effect of bringing all his activities within that PRA controlled function.

SUP 10B.5

Temporary vacancies

SUP 10B.5.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
If:
(1) a firm appoints an individual to perform a function which, but for this rule, would be a PRA controlled function;
(2) the appointment is to provide cover for an approved person whose absence is:
(a) temporary; or
(b) reasonably unforeseen; and
(3) the appointment is for less than 12 weeks in a consecutive 12-month period;
the description of the relevant PRA controlled function does not relate to those activities of that individual.

SUP 10B.5.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
SUP 10B.5.1 R enables cover to be given for holidays and emergencies and avoids the need for the precautionary approval of, for example, a deputy. However, as soon as it becomes apparent that a person will be performing a PRA controlled function for more than 12 weeks, the firm should apply for approval.

SUP 10B.6

PRA governing functions

Director function (CF1)

SUP 10B.6.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a firm is a body corporate (other than a limited liability partnership), the director function is the function of acting in the capacity of a director (other than non-executive director) of that firm.

SUP 10B.6.2

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) If a firm is a body corporate (other than a limited liability partnership), the director function is also the function of acting in the capacity of a person:
(a) who is a director, partner, officer, member (if the parent undertaking or holding company is a limited liability partnership), senior manager, or employee of a parent undertaking or holding company of the firm; and
(b) whose decisions or actions are regularly taken into account by the governing body of the firm.
(2) (1) does not apply if that parent undertaking or holding company has a Part 4A permission or is regulated by an EEA regulator.
(3) (1) does not apply to the function falling into SUP 10B.6.4 R (non-executive director of the parent undertaking or holding company).

Non-executive director function

SUP 10B.6.3

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a firm is a body corporate, the non-executive director function is the function of acting in the capacity of a non-executive director of that firm.

SUP 10B.6.4

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) If a firm is a body corporate, the non-executive director function is also the function of acting in the capacity of a person:
(b) whose decisions or actions are regularly taken into account by the governing body of the firm.
(2) However, (1) does not apply if that parent undertaking or holding company has a Part 4A permission or is regulated by an EEA regulator.

SUP 10B.6.5

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a firm is a long-term insurer, the non-executive director function is also the function of acting in the capacity of an individual who, as a member of a committee having the purpose of a with-profits committee, has responsibility in relation to governance arrangements for with-profits business under COBS 20.3 (Principles and Practices of Financial Management). This does not apply to an individual performing the director function.

SUP 10B.6.6

See Notes

handbook-guidance
A firm should notify the PRA if a person moves between certain roles making up the non-executive director function (SUP 10B.12.6 R).

Chief executive function (CF3)

SUP 10B.6.7

See Notes

handbook-rule
The chief executive function is the function of acting in the capacity of a chief executive of a firm.

SUP 10B.6.8

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This function is having the responsibility, alone or jointly with one or more others, under the immediate authority of the governing body:
(1) for the conduct of the whole of the business (or relevant activities); or
(2) in the case of a branch in the United Kingdom of an overseas firm, for the conduct of all of the activities subject to the UKregulatory system.

SUP 10B.6.9

See Notes

handbook-guidance
For a branch in the United Kingdom of an overseas firm, the PRA would not normally expect the overseas chief executive of the firm as a whole to be approved for this function where there is a senior manager under him with specific responsibility for those activities of the branch which are subject to the UK regulatory system. In some circumstances, the person within the firm responsible for UK operations may, if the function is likely to enable him to exercise significant influence over the branch, also perform the chief executive function.

SUP 10B.6.10

See Notes

handbook-guidance
A person performing the chief executive function may be a member of the governing body but need not be. If the chairman of the governing body is also the chief executive, he will be discharging this function. If the responsibility is divided between more than one person but not shared, there is no person exercising the chief executive function. But if that responsibility is discharged jointly by more than one person, each of those persons will be performing the chief executive function.

SUP 10B.6.11

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Note that a body corporate may be a chief executive. If so, it will need to be approved to perform the chief executive function.

Partner function (CF4)

SUP 10B.6.12

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a firm is a partnership, the partner function is the function of acting in the capacity of a partner in that firm.

SUP 10B.6.13

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a firm is a limited liability partnership, the partner function extends to the firm as if the firm were a partnership and a member of the firm were a partner.

SUP 10B.6.14

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a partnership is registered under the Limited Partnership Act 1907, the partner function does not extend to any function performed by a limited partner.

Director of unincorporated association function (CF5)

SUP 10B.6.15

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a firm is an unincorporated association, the Director of unincorporated association function is the function of acting in the capacity of a director of the unincorporated association.

Small friendly society function (CF6)

SUP 10B.6.16

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) If a firm is a non-directive friendly society, the small friendly society function is the function of directing its affairs, either alone or jointly with others.
(2) If the principal purpose of the firm is to carry on regulated activities, each person with responsibility for directing its affairs performs the PRA controlled function.
(3) If the principal purpose of the firm is other than to carry on regulated activities, a person performs the small friendly society function only to the extent that he has responsibility for a regulated activity.

SUP 10B.6.17

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) Each person on the non-directive friendly society'sgoverning body will be taken to have responsibility for its regulated activities, unless the firm has apportioned this responsibility to one particular individual to whom it is reasonable to give this responsibility.
(2) The individual need not be a member of the governing body.

SUP 10B.6.18

See Notes

handbook-guidance
(1) Typically a non-directive friendly society will appoint a "committee of management" to direct its affairs. However, the governing arrangements may be informal and flexible. If this is the case, the PRA would expect the society to resolve to give responsibility for the carrying on of regulated activities to one individual who is appropriate in all the circumstances. That individual may, for example, have the title of chief executive or similar. The individual would have to be a PRA-approved person under SUP 10B.6.16 R.
(2) The PRA expects that any apportionment of responsibilities will have taken place under SYSC 2.1.1 R. The PRA may ask to see details of the apportionment but will not require, as a matter of course, a copy of the material which records this (see SYSC 2.2).

Insurance mediation

SUP 10B.6.19

See Notes

handbook-guidance

[deleted]

SUP 10B.6.20

See Notes

handbook-guidance

[deleted]

SUP 10B.7

Other functions included in the governing functions

Systems and controls function

SUP 10B.7.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
Each of the PRA governing functions includes, where apportioned under SYSC 2.1.1 R, SYSC 4.3.1 R or SYSC 4.4.3 R, the systems and controls function. This does not apply to the non-executive director function or the function described in SUP 10B.6.2 R.

SUP 10B.7.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The effect of SUP 10B.7.1 R is that a person who is approved to perform a PRA governing function (other than the non-executive director function or the function described in SUP 10B.6.2 R) will not have to be specifically approved to perform the systems and controls function. A person who is approved to perform a PRA governing function will have to be additionally approved before he can perform any of the PRA required functions.

The FCA's apportionment and oversight function (CF8)

SUP 10B.7.3

See Notes

handbook-rule
If:
(1) a person has been approved to perform a PRA governing function in relation to a firm and that approval is still in force;
(2) that person is also performing a function that falls within the apportionment and oversight function in relation to that firm (or would do so except for SUP 10A.11.11 R (FCA rule disapplying the apportionment and oversight function in relation to a person approved by the PRA to perform a governing function)); and
(3) that person is not the subject of a current FCA approved person approval for the apportionment and oversight function in relation to that firm;
that PRA governing function includes the apportionment and oversight function (or, if there is more than one such PRA governing function, each them does).

SUP 10B.7.4

See Notes

handbook-rule
If in relation to a firm:
(1) SUP 10B.7.3 R has applied to a PRA-approved person;
(2) that person has ceased to perform any PRA governing function (ignoring the expansion of that function by SUP 10B.7.3 R); and
(3) that person is still performing what would otherwise be the apportionment and oversight function;
SUP 10B.7.3 R continues to apply for three months after that PRA-approved person would otherwise have ceased to perform the PRA controlled function or, if sooner, until the FCA has approved the performance by that person of the apportionment and oversight function in relation to the firm.

SUP 10B.7.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
An example of the way SUP 10B.7.4 R works is this. Say that a person (A) is appointed as director and the person who performs the apportionment and oversight function. A will be performing the director function but will not be performing the apportionment and oversight function. Say that later A gives up his role as director but remains as the person who performs apportionment and oversight function. If SUP 10B.7.4 R (and the corresponding parts of the FCA's Handbook) did not apply the result would be that A would cease to perform a PRA controlled function but would start performing the apportionment and oversight function before A had a chance to apply to the FCA for approval. The combined effect of SUP 10B.7.4 R and SUP 10A.11 of the FCA's Handbook is that the firm has three months to secure approval by the FCA for A's performance of the apportionment and oversight function and during that interim period A keeps his status as a PRA-approved person.

SUP 10B.7.6

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Further details of how SUP 10B.7.3 R and SUP 10B.7.4 R work can be found in SUP 10A.11 of the FCA's Handbook.

SUP 10B.8

PRA required functions

Actuarial function (CF12)

SUP 10B.8.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
The actuarial function is the function of acting in the capacity of an actuary appointed by a firm under SUP 4.3.1 R to perform the duties set out in SUP 4.3.13 R.

With-profits actuary function (CF12A)

SUP 10B.8.2

See Notes

handbook-rule
The with-profits actuary function is the function of acting in the capacity of an actuary appointed by a firm under SUP 4.3.1 R to perform the duties set out in SUP 4.3.16A R.

Lloyd's actuary function (CF12B)

SUP 10B.8.3

See Notes

handbook-rule
The Lloyd's actuary function is the function of acting in the capacity of the actuary appointed under SUP 4.6.1 R to perform the duties set out in SUP 4.6.7 R.

SUP 10B.9

Systems and controls function

Systems and controls function (CF28)

SUP 10B.9.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
The systems and controls function is the function of acting in the capacity of an employee of the firm with responsibility for reporting to the governing body of a firm, or the audit committee (or its equivalent) in relation to:
(1) its financial affairs;
(2) setting and controlling its risk exposure (see SYSC 3.2.10 G, SYSC 7.1.6 R and, for CRR firms, Risk Control 2.5 of the PRA Rulebook); and
(3) adherence to internal systems and controls, procedures and policies (see SYSC 3.2.16 G, SYSC 6.2 and, for CRR firms, Compliance and Internal Audit 3.1 of the PRA Rulebook).

SUP 10B.9.2

See Notes

handbook-rule
The systems and controls function does not apply in relation to bidding in emissions auctions carried on by a firm that is exempt from MiFID under article 2(1)(i).

SUP 10B.9.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Where an employee performs the systems and controls function the PRA would expect the firm to ensure that the employee had sufficient expertise and authority to perform that function effectively. A director or senior manager would meet this expectation.

SUP 10B.10

Procedures relating to PRA-approved persons

Forms

SUP 10B.10.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The forms listed in SUP 10B.10.2 G are referred to in SUP 10B.11 (Application for approval and withdrawing an application for approval) to SUP 10B.14 (How to apply for approval and give notifications).

SUP 10B.10.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Table PRA-approved persons forms

SUP 10B.10.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
A summary of the forms and their purposes is in SUP 10B Annex 2G.

SUP 10B.10.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Unless the context otherwise requires, in SUP 10B.10 (Procedures relating to PRA-approved person) to SUP 10B.14 (How to apply for approval and give notifications) where reference is made to a firm, this also includes an applicant for Part 4A permission, and other persons seeking to carry on regulated activities as an authorised person.

SUP 10B.10.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Forms B, C, D and E can only be submitted in respect of a PRA-approved person by the firm that submitted a PRA-approved person's original application (the relevant Form A).

SUP 10B.10.6

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Copies of Forms A, B, C, D and E may be obtained from the PRA's website. Credit unions can obtain copies by email at PRA-ApprovedPersons@bankofengland.co.uk. To contact the PRA for general approved persons enquiries please contact PRA Firm Enquiries:
(1) telephone: +44 (0) 20 3461 7000; or
(2) write to:

PRA Firm Enquiries

Prudential Regulation Authority

20 Moorgate

London EC2R 6DA; or
(3) e-mail: PRA-ApprovedPersons@bankofengland.co.uk.

SUP 10B.11

Application for approval and withdrawing an application for approval

When to apply for approval

SUP 10B.11.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
In accordance with section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements), where a candidate will be performing one or more PRA controlled functions, a firm must take reasonable care to ensure that the candidate does not perform these functions unless he has prior approval from the PRA with the consent of the FCA.

SUP 10B.11.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Under section 59B of the Act (Role of FCA in relation to PRA decisions) the FCA may arrange with the PRA that in agreed kinds of cases there is no need for the consent of the FCA. There are currently no such arrangements in place.

Failure to apply for approval

SUP 10B.11.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If a person performs a PRA controlled function without approval it is not only the firm that is accountable. Under section 63A of the Act (Power to impose penalties) if the PRA is satisfied that:
(1) a person ("P") has at any time performed a PRA controlled function without approval; and
(2) at that time P knew, or could reasonably be expected to have known, that P was performing a PRA controlled function without approval;
it may impose a penalty on P of such amount as it considers appropriate.

How to apply for approval

SUP 10B.11.4

See Notes

handbook-directions
An application by a firm for the PRA's approval under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements) must be made by completing Form A (except where SUP 10B.12.4 D requires a Form E).

SUP 10B.11.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
SUP 10B.14.1 D explains how applications should be submitted.

Who should make the application?

SUP 10B.11.6

See Notes

handbook-guidance
(1) In accordance with section 60 of the Act (Applications for approval), applications must be submitted by, or on behalf of, the firm itself, not by:
(a) the PRA candidate; or
(2) Usually this will be the firm that is employing the PRA candidate to perform the PRA controlled function. Where a firm has outsourced the performance of a PRA controlled function, the details of the outsourcing determine where responsibility lies and whom the PRA anticipates will submit PRA-approved persons application forms. SUP 10B.11.7 G describes some common situations. The firm which is outsourcing is referred to as "A" and the person to whom the performance of the PRA controlled function has been outsourced, or which makes the arrangement for the PRA controlled function to be performed, is referred to as "B". In each situation, A must take reasonable care to ensure that, in accordance with section 59(2) of the Act, no person performs a PRA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by its contract or in relation to the carrying on by A of a regulated activity, without approval from the PRA. See also SYSC 3.2.4 G and SYSC 8.1.1 R, and, for CRR firms, Outsourcing 2.1 of the PRA Rulebookand SYSC 13.9 for insurers.

SUP 10B.11.7

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Outsourcing arrangements

SUP 10B.11.7A

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The reference to "SYSC 8" in in the table above must be read as "SYSC 8 or, in the case of a CRR firm, the Outsourcing Part of the PRA Rulebook".

Processing an application

SUP 10B.11.8

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The Act sets out the time that the PRA has to consider an application and come to a decision.

SUP 10B.11.9

See Notes

handbook-guidance
In any case where the application for approval is made by a person applying for permission under Part 4A of the Act the PRA has until the end of whichever of the following periods ends last:
(1) the period within which an application for that permission must be determined; and
(2) the period of three months from the time it receives a properly completed application.

SUP 10B.11.10

See Notes

handbook-guidance
In any other case it is the period of three months from the time it receives a properly completed application.

SUP 10B.11.11

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Application forms must always be completed fully and honestly. Further notes on how to complete the form are contained in each form. If forms are not completed fully and honestly, applications will be subject to investigation and the PRA candidate's suitability to be approved to undertake a PRA controlled function will be called into question. A person who provides information to the PRA that is false or misleading may commit a criminal offence, and could face prosecution under section 398 of the Act regardless of the status of their application.

SUP 10B.11.12

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The PRA will as soon as practicable notify the FCA of the receipt of an application to the PRA. There is no need for the firm to copy the application to the FCA.

SUP 10B.11.13

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Before making a decision to grant the application or give a warning notice, the PRA may ask the firm for more information about the PRA candidate. If it does this, the period in which the PRA must determine a completed application:
(1) will stop on the day the PRA requests the information; and
(2) will start running again on the day on which the PRA finally receives all the requested information.

SUP 10B.11.14

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The FCA may also ask the firm for more information about the PRA candidate. If it does this, the period in which the PRA must determine a completed application is extended in the same way as it is if the PRA asks for the information.

SUP 10B.11.15

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The PRA may only grant an application (and the FCA may only give its consent) if it is satisfied that the PRA candidate is a fit and proper person to perform the PRA controlled function stated in the application form. Responsibility lies with the firm making the application to satisfy the PRA and the FCA that the PRA candidate is fit and proper to perform the PRA controlled function applied for.

SUP 10B.11.16

See Notes

handbook-guidance
For further guidance on criteria for assessing whether a PRA candidate is fit and proper, see FIT.

Decisions on applications

SUP 10B.11.17

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The PRA must either grant the application or, if it proposes not to grant an application, issue a warning notice.

SUP 10B.11.18

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Whenever it grants an application, the PRA will confirm this in writing to all interested parties.

SUP 10B.11.19

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If the PRA proposes to refuse an application in relation to one or more PRA controlled functions, it must follow the procedures for issuing warning and decision notices.

Withdrawing an application for approval

SUP 10B.11.20

See Notes

handbook-rule
A firm applying to withdraw an application for approval must notify the PRA, using Form B, in the form set out in SUP 10B Annex 5R.

SUP 10B.11.21

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Under section 61(5) of the Act (Determination of applications), the firm may withdraw an application only if it also has the consent of the PRA candidate and the person by whom the PRA candidate is or would have been employed, if this is not the firm making the application.

SUP 10B.11.22

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The PRA will as soon as practicable notify the FCA of the receipt of a notice of withdrawal. There is no need for the firm to copy the notice to the FCA.

SUP 10B.12

Changes to a PRA-approved person's details

Moving within a firm

SUP 10B.12.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
A PRA-approved person's job may change from time to time as a result, for instance, of a change in personal job responsibilities or a firm's regulated activities. Where the changes will involve the person performing one or more PRA controlled functions different from those for which approval has already been granted, then an application must be made to the PRA for approval for the person to perform those PRA controlled functions. The firm must take reasonable care to ensure that an individual does not begin performing a PRA controlled function until the PRA has granted approved person status to that individual in respect of that PRA controlled function. Similarly, a firm must get the PRA's approval if a person is to start performing a PRA controlled function in relation to that firm when he already has the FCA's approval to perform an FCA controlled function in relation to that firm.

SUP 10B.12.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If an FCA-approved person or a PRA-approved person is ceasing to perform FCA controlled functions or PRA controlled functions, as well as applying for approval in respect of PRA controlled functions, SUP 10B.12.4 D generally applies. Further details can be found in SUP 10B Annex 2G.

SUP 10B.12.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If a person is to perform a PRA controlled function for a firm for which he already performs a PRA controlled function or FCA controlled function as an approved person but he is not at the same time ceasing to perform an FCA controlled function or PRA controlled function, a firm should use Form A rather than Form E. It is not mandatory to complete all parts of the form. See the notes relevant to each form for full details.

SUP 10B.12.4

See Notes

handbook-directions
(1) A firm must use Form E where an approved person is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions and needs to be approved in relation to one or more PRA controlled functions within the same firm or group.
(2) A firm must not use Form E if the approved person has never before been approved to perform a significant influence function for any firm or has not been the subject of a current approved person approval from the FCA or PRA to perform a significant influence function in relation to any firm for more than six months.
(3) A firm must not use Form E if a notification has been made or should be made under SUP 10B.12.18 R (Changes in fitness to be notified under Form D) or SUP 10A.14.17 R (the equivalent FCA rule) in relation to any controlled functions that, that person is ceasing to perform (as referred to in (1)) or any controlled function that he is continuing to perform in relation to that firm or a firm in the same group.

SUP 10B.12.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
SUP 10B.14.1 D explains how applications should be submitted.

SUP 10B.12.6

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a person is performing the non-executive director function in relation to a firm, the firm must notify the PRA as soon as possible if that person begins to perform or ceases to perform any of the following functions:
(1) the function of acting in the capacity of the chairman of the governing body of the firm; or
(2) the function of acting as a non-executive director who has been appointed by the non-executive directors to act as the senior independent director of that firm; or
(3) the function of acting in the capacity of the chairman of the governing body risk committee of the firm (if there is such a committee). For these purposes, the governing body risk committee means the committee described in SYSC 21.1.5 G; or
(4) the function of acting in the capacity of the chairman of the audit committee of the governing body of the firm (if there is such a committee); or
(5) the function of acting in the capacity of the chairman of the remuneration committee of the governing body of the firm (if there is such a committee).
Any such notification must be e-mailed to the PRA's approved persons mailbox at PRA-ApprovedPersons@bankofengland.co.uk

SUP 10B.12.7

See Notes

handbook-guidance
So for example if a non-executive director moves from being chair of the audit committee to chair of the risk committee or adds the role of chair of the audit committee to his existing role as chair of the risk committee he does not require approval from the PRA. However, the firm should notify the PRA of that change as soon as possible. If a person stops performing the non-executive director function altogether, SUP 10B.12.4 D or SUP 10B.12.10 R apply instead.

Moving between firms

SUP 10B.12.8

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If it is proposed that a PRA-approved person will no longer be performing a PRA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by one firm or one of its contractors, but will be performing the same or a different PRA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a new firm or one of its contractors (whether or not the new firm is in the same group as the old firm), the new firm will be required to make a fresh application for the performance of the PRA controlled function by that person.

SUP 10B.12.9

See Notes

handbook-guidance
In certain circumstances, when the PRA already has the information it would usually require, a shortened version of the relevant Form A may be completed. See the notes relevant to each form for full details.

Ceasing to perform a PRA controlled function

SUP 10B.12.10

See Notes

handbook-rule
A firm must submit to the PRA a completed Form C, in the form set out in SUP 10B Annex 6R no later than seven business days after a PRA-approved person ceases to perform a PRA controlled function. This does not apply if the firm has already notified the PRA of the proposal to do that using Form E in accordance with this chapter or has notified the FCA of the proposal to do using the FCA's Form E in accordance with SUP 10A of the FCA's Handbook.

SUP 10B.12.11

See Notes

handbook-guidance
SUP 10B.14.1 D explains how notifications should be submitted.

SUP 10B.12.12

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) A firm must notify the PRA as soon as practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of a PRA-approved person.
(2) Form C is qualified if the information it contains:
(a) relates to the fact that the firm has dismissed, or suspended, the PRA-approved person from its employment; or
(b) relates to the resignation by the PRA-approved person while under investigation by the firm, the PRA or any other regulatory body; or
(c) otherwise reasonably suggests that it may affect the PRA's assessment of the PRA-approved person's fitness and propriety.

SUP 10B.12.13

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Notification under SUP 10B.12.12 R may be made by telephone, fax or email and should be made, where possible, within one business day of the firm becoming aware of the information. If the firm does not submit Form C, it should inform the PRA in due course of the reason. This could be done using Form D, if appropriate.

SUP 10B.12.14

See Notes

handbook-guidance
A firm is responsible for notifying the PRA if any PRA-approved person has ceased to perform a PRA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by its appointed representative or former appointed representative.

SUP 10B.12.15

See Notes

handbook-guidance
A firm can submit Form C or Form E to the PRA in advance of the cessation date. When a person ceases the arrangement under which he performs a PRA controlled function, he will automatically cease to be a PRA-approved person in relation to that PRA controlled function. A person can only be a PRA-approved person in relation to a specific PRA controlled function. Therefore, a person is not a PRA-approved person during any period between ceasing to perform one PRA controlled function (when he is performing no other PRA controlled function) and being approved in respect of another PRA controlled function.

Changes to a PRA-approved person's personal details

SUP 10B.12.16

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a PRA-approved person's title, name or national insurance number changes, the firm for which the person performs a PRA controlled function must notify the PRA on Form D, in the form set out in SUP 10B Annex 7R, of that change within seven business days of the firm becoming aware of the matter.

SUP 10B.12.17

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The duty to notify in SUP 10B.12.16 R does not apply to changes to a PRA-approved person's private address.

SUP 10B.12.18

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of a PRA-approved person's, or a PRA candidate's, fitness and propriety (see FIT), it must inform the PRA on Form D, or (if it is more practical to do so and with the prior agreement of the PRA) by fax or e-mail, as soon as practicable.

SUP 10B.12.19

See Notes

handbook-guidance
SUP 10B.14.2 R applies to the submission of Form D.

SUP 10B.12.20

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Failing to disclose relevant information to the PRA may be a criminal offence under section 398 of the Act.

SUP 10B.12.21

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The duty to notify in SUP 10B.12.18 R extends to any circumstances that would normally be declared when giving the information required for section 5 of Form A or matters considered in FIT 2.

SUP 10B.12.22

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10B Annex 4D), any of the details relating to arrangements and PRA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the PRA on Form D (SUP 10B Annex 7R).
(2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.
(3) This also applies in relation to a PRA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.
(4) This rule also applies to a firm in respect of an approved person, to whom the grandfathering arrangements relating to the coming into force of the Act applied as if the firm had completed the relevant Form A for that person.

SUP 10B.13

References and accurate information

References

SUP 10B.13.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) If a firm (A):
(a) is considering appointing a person to perform any PRA controlled function;
(b) requests another firm (B), as a current or former employer of that person, for a reference or other information in connection with that appointment; and
(c) indicates to B the purpose of the request;
B must, as soon as reasonably practicable, give to A all relevant information of which it is aware.
(2) When giving the information to A under (1), B must have regard to the purpose of the request and in particular to:
(a) any outstanding liabilities of that person from commission payments;
(b) any relevant outstanding or upheld complaint from an eligible complainant against that person;
(c) section 5 of the relevant Form A in SUP 10B Annex 4 (Application to perform controlled functions under approved persons regime);
(d) FIT 2 (Main assessment criteria); and
(e) if SUP 16.8.1 G (1) (Persistency reports from insurers and data reports on stakeholder pensions) applies to B, the persistency of any life policies sold by that person.

SUP 10B.13.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The requirement in SUP 10B.13.1R (1) for firm (B) to give to firm (A) all relevant information of which it is aware concerning a person firm A is considering appointing to perform any of the PRA controlled functions, also applies where firm A has outsourced the collection of that information to another (unregulated) third party, where firm B has been made aware that the unregulated third party is acting on behalf of firm A.

SUP 10B.13.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
A firm supplying a reference in accordance with SUP 10B.13.1 R owes a duty to its former employee and the recipient firm to exercise due skill and care in the preparation of the reference. The reference should be accurate and based on documented fact. The firm may give frank and honest views, but only after taking reasonable care both as to factual content, and as to the opinions expressed, and verifying the information upon which they are based.

The need for complete and accurate information

SUP 10B.13.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The obligations to supply information to:
(1) the PRA under either SUP 10B.12.10 R or SUP 10B.12.12 R; or
(2) another firm under SUP 10B.13.1 R;
apply notwithstanding any agreement (for example a 'COT 3' Agreement settled by the Advisory, Conciliation and Arbitration Service (ACAS)) or any other arrangements entered into by a firm and an employee upon termination of the employee's employment. A firm should not enter into any such arrangements or agreements that could conflict with its obligations under this section.

SUP 10B.13.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Failing to disclose relevant information to the PRA may be a criminal offence under section 398 of the Act.

SUP 10B.14

How to apply for approval and give notifications

SUP 10B.14.1

See Notes

handbook-directions
(1) This direction applies to an application under Form A or Form E.
(2) An application by a firm other than a credit union must be made by submitting the Form online at http://fshandbook.info/FS/html/PRA/SUP/10B/14 using the form specified on the FCA's and PRA's ONA system.
(3) An application by a credit union must be made using the form in SUP 10B Annex 4D or SUP 10B Annex 8D and must be submitted in the way set out in Notifications 7 (Form and method of notification) of the PRA Rulebook.
(4) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (2), if the information technology systems used by the PRA fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored a firm must use the form in SUP 10B Annex 4D or SUP 10B Annex 8D and submit it in the way set out in Notifications 7 (Form and method of notification) of the PRA Rulebook.

SUP 10B.14.2

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) This rule applies to a notification under Form C or Form D.
(2) A notification must be made in accordance with SUP 10B.14.1 D except that the annexes to SUP 10B in which the forms are to be found are SUP 10B Annex 6R or SUP 10B Annex 7R rather than the Annexes mentioned in SUP 10B.14.1 D.

SUP 10B.14.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If the information technology systems used by the PRA fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA and PRA will endeavour to publish a notice on their websites confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 10B.14.1D (4) and Notifications 7 (Form and method of notification) of the PRA Rulebook. should be used.

SUP 10B.14.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Where SUP 10B.14.1D (4) or the equivalent situation under SUP 10B.14.2 R applies to a firm, General Provisions 2.2 of the PRA Rulebook does not apply.

SUP 10B Annex 1

[Not used]

See Notes

handbook-rule

SUP 10B Annex 2

Approved person regime: summary of forms and their use for applications for approval to perform a PRA-controlled function

See Notes

handbook-guidance

SUP 10B Annex 3

[Not used]

[Not used]

SUP 10B Annex 4

Form A: Application to perform controlled functions under the approved person regime

See Notes

handbook-directions
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address: Supervision forms - Notes from direction in SUP 10B.12

SUP 10B Annex 5

Form B: Notice to withdraw an application to perform controlled functions under the approved persons regime

See Notes

handbook-directions
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address: Supervision forms - SUP 10B Annex 5

SUP 10B Annex 6

Form C: Notice of ceasing to perform controlled functions

See Notes

handbook-rule
This annex consists of only one or more forms. Forms can be completed online now by visiting: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation



The forms are also to be found through the following address: Supervision forms - SUP 10B Annex 6

SUP 10B Annex 7

Form D: Notification of changes in personal information or application details

See Notes

handbook-rule
This annex consists of only one or more forms. Forms can be completed online now by visiting: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation



The forms are also to be found through the following address: Supervision forms - SUP 10B Annex 7

SUP 10B Annex 8

Form E: Internal transfer of an approved person

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address: Supervision forms - SUP 10B Annex 8

Export chapter as

SUP 11

Controllers and close links

SUP 11.1

Application

Application to firms

SUP 11.1.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
This chapter applies to every firm except:
(1) an ICVC;
(4) [deleted]
as set out in the table in SUP 11.1.2 R.

SUP 11.1.2

See Notes

handbook-rule

Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)

SUP 11.1.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This chapter may apply to directive friendly societies in the circumstances described in SUP 16.4.2 G (1) to (3).

Application to controllers

SUP 11.1.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This chapter may apply to controllers and proposed controllers of directive friendly societies in the circumstances described in SUP 16.4.2G (1) to (3).

SUP 11.2

Purpose

SUP 11.2.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Part XII of the Act (Control Over Authorised Persons) places an obligation on the controllers and proposed controllers of those UK domestic firms not listed in SUP 11.1.1 R (1) to SUP 11.1.1 R (6) to notify the appropriate regulator of changes in control, including acquiring, increasing or reducing control or ceasing to have control over a firm. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the appropriate regulator's approval before becoming a controller or increasing their control over a firm. SUP 11.3 is intended to assist those persons in complying with their obligations under Part XII of the Act.

SUP 11.2.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The rules in SUP 11.4 to SUP 11.6 are aimed at ensuring that the appropriate regulator receives the information that it needs to fulfil its responsibility to monitor and, in some cases, give prior approval to firms' controllers.

SUP 11.2.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
As the approval of the appropriate regulator is not required under the Act for a new controller of an overseas firm, the notification rules on such firms are less prescriptive than they are for UK domestic firms. Nevertheless, the appropriate regulator still needs to monitor such an overseas firm's continuing satisfaction of the threshold conditions, which normally includes consideration of a firm's connection with any person, including its controllers and parent undertakings (see the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 3B, 4F and 5F of Schedule 6 to the Act). The appropriate regulator therefore needs to be notified of controllers and parent undertakings of overseas firms.

SUP 11.2.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
As part of the appropriate regulator's function of monitoring a firm's continuing satisfaction of the threshold conditions, the appropriate regulator needs to consider the impact of any significant change in the circumstances of one or more of its controllers, for example, in their financial standing and, in respect of corporate controllers, in their governing bodies. Consequently, the appropriate regulator needs to know if there are any such changes. SUP 11.8 therefore requires a firm to tell the appropriate regulator if it becomes aware of particular matters relating to a controller.

SUP 11.2.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Similarly, the appropriate regulator needs to monitor a firm's continuing satisfaction of the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 3B, 4F and 5F of Schedule 6 to the Act (as applicable) (in relation to threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible,see COND 2.3), which requires that a firm's close links are not likely to prevent the appropriate regulator's effective supervision of that firm. Accordingly the appropriate regulator needs to be notified of any changes in a firm's close links. This requirement is contained in SUP 11.9.

SUP 11.2.6

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Every firm, other than a firm listed in SUP 11.1.1 R (1) to SUP 11.1.1 R (6)or a firm excluded from the operation of SUP 16.4 or SUP 16.5 by SUP 16.1.3 R, is required to submit an annual report on its controllers and close links as set out in SUP 16.4 and SUP 16.5.

SUP 11.2.7

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The requirements in SUP 11 implement certain provisions relating to changes in control and close links required under the Single Market Directives.

SUP 11.2.8

See Notes

handbook-guidance
An event described in SUP 11.4.2R, SUP 11.4.2A R and SUP 11.4.4Ris referred to in this chapter as a "change in control".

SUP 11.3

Requirements on controllers or proposed controllers under the Act

SUP 11.3.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The notification requirements are set out in sections 178, 179, 191D and 191E of the Act and holdings which may be disregarded are set out in section 184 of the Act.A summary of the notification requirements described in this section is given in SUP 11 Annex 1.

SUP 11.3.1A

See Notes

handbook-guidance
For the purposes of Part XII (Control over authorised persons) of the Act, and in particular, calculations relating to the holding of shares and/or voting power, the definitions of "shares" and "voting power" are set out in section 191G of the Act.

SUP 11.3.1B

See Notes

handbook-guidance
SUP 11 Annex 6G provides guidance on when one person's holding of shares or voting power must be aggregated with that of another person for the purpose of determining whether an acquisition or increase of control will take place as contemplated by section 181 or 182 of the Act such that notice must be given to the appropriate regulator in accordance with section 178 of the Act before making the acquisition or increase. This will be:
(1) where those persons are acting in concert, as contemplated by section 178(2) (Obligation to notify appropriate regulator: acquisitions of control) of the Act; or
(2) in the case of voting power only, if any of the circumstances described in section 422(5) (Controller) of the Act apply.

Requirement to notify a proposed change in control

SUP 11.3.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Sections 178(1) and 191D(1)of the Act require a person (whether or not he is an authorised person) to notify the appropriate regulator in writing if he decides toacquire, increase or reduce control or to cease to have controlover a UK domestic firm. Failure to notify is an offence under section 191F of the Act (Offences under this Part).

SUP 11.3.2A

See Notes

handbook-guidance

The Treasury have made the following exemptions from the obligations under section 178 of the Act:

  1. (1) controllers and potential controllers of non-directive friendly societiesare exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control (The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/774));
  2. (2) controllers and potential controllers of building societies are exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control unless the change involves the acquisition of a holding of a specified percentage of a building society's capital or the increase or reduction by a specified percentage of a holding of a building society's capital (The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/774.)). The "capital" of a building society for these purposes consists of:
    1. (a) any shares of a class defined as deferred shares for the purposes of section 119 of the Building Societies Act 1986 which have been issued by the society (in practice, likely to be permanent interest bearing shares (PIBS)); and
    2. (b) the general reserves of that building society:
  3. (3) potential controllers of non-directive firms(other than, in the case of an FCA-authorised person, firms with only a limited permission) ("A") are exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control unless the change results in the potential controller holding:
    1. (a) 20% or more of the shares in A or in a parent undertaking of A ("P");
    2. (b) 20% or more of the voting power in A or P; or
    3. (c) shares or voting power in A or P as a result of which the controller is able to exercise significant influence over the management of A;
  4. or where the change in control over A would lead to the controller ceasing to fall into any of the cases (a), (b) or (c) above (The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/774)).
  5. (4) (in the case of a change in control over an FCA-authorised person) potential controllers of firms with only a limited permission) ("A") are exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control, unless the change would result in the potential controller holding:
    1. (a) 33% or more of the shares in A or in a parent undertaking of A ("P"); or
    2. (b) 33% or more of the voting power in A or P; or
    3. (c) shares or voting power in A or P as a result of which the controller is able to exercise significant influence over the management of A;
  6. or where the change in control over A would lead to the controller ceasing to fall into any of the cases (a), (b) or (c) above (The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/774)).

Approval required before acquiring or increasing control

SUP 11.3.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If a persondecidesto acquire control or increase control over a UK domestic firm in a way described in SUP 11.4.2 Ror acquire control in a way described in SUP 11.4.2AR (1), he must obtain the appropriate regulator's approval before doing so. Making an acquisition before the appropriate regulator has approved of itis an offence under section 191F of the Act (Offences under this Part).

SUP 11.3.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The appropriate regulator's approval is not required before a controller reduces control or ceases to have controlover a UK domestic firm.

Pre-notification and approval for fund managers

SUP 11.3.5A

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The appropriate regulator recognises that firms acting as investment managers may have difficulties in complying with the prior notification requirements in sections 178 and 191D of the Act as a result of acquiring or disposing of listed shares in the course of that fund management activity. To ameliorate these difficulties, the appropriate regulator may accept pre-notification of proposed changes in control, made in accordance with SUP D, and may grant approval of such changes for a period lasting up to a year.

SUP 11.3.5B

See Notes

handbook-directions
The appropriate regulator may treat as notice given in accordance with sections 178 and 191Dof the Act a written notification from a firm which contains the following statements:
(1) that the firm proposes to acquire and/or dispose of control, on one or more occasions, of any UK domestic firm whose shares or those of its ultimate parent undertaking are, at the time of the acquisition or disposal of control, listed, or which are traded or admitted to trading on a MTF or a market operated by a ROIE;
(2) that any such acquisitions and/or disposals of control will occur only in the course of the firm's business as an investment manager;
(3) that the level of control the firm so acquires in the pre-approval period will at all times remain less than 20%; and
(4) that the firm will not exercise any influence over the UK domestic firm in which the shares are held, other than by exercising its voting rights as a shareholder or by exercising influence intended to promote generally accepted principles of good corporate governance.

SUP 11.3.5C

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Where the appropriate regulator approves changes in control proposed in a notice given under SUP 11.3.5B D:
(1) the controller remains subject to the requirement to notify the appropriate regulator when a change in control actually occurs; and
(2) the notification of change in control should be made no later than five business days after the end of each month and set out all changes in the controller's control position for each UK domestic firm for the month in question.

At that stage, the appropriate regulator may seek from the controller further information.

Forms of notifications when acquiring or increasing control

SUP 11.3.7

See Notes

handbook-directions
A section 178 notice given to the appropriate regulator by a person who is acquiring control or increasing his control over a UK domestic firm, in a way described in SUP 11.4.2 R (1) to (4), or acquiring control in a way described in SUP 11.4.2A R, mustcontain the information and be accompanied by such documents as are required by the controllers form approved by the appropriate regulator for the relevant application.

SUP 11.3.10

See Notes

handbook-directions
(1) A person who has submitted a section 178 notice under SUP 11.3.7 D must notify the appropriate regulator immediately if he becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests, that he has or may have provided the appropriate regulator with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed, in a material particular. The notification must include:
(a) details of the information which is or may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed;
(b) an explanation why such information was or may have been provided; and
(c) the correct information.
(2) If the information in (1) (c) cannot be submitted with the section 178 notice (because it is not immediately available), it must instead be submitted as soon as possible afterwards.
(3) The requirement in (1) ceases if the change in control occurs or will not take place.

SUP 11.3.11

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The appropriate regulator will inform a section 178 notice giver as soon as reasonably practicable if it considers the section 178 notice to be incomplete.

SUP 11.3.12

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The appropriate regulator has power, under section 179(3) of the Act (Requirements for section 178 notices ), to vary or waive these requirements in relation to a section 178 notice in particular cases if it considers it appropriate to do so.

SUP 11.3.13

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Where a controller or proposed controller which is an authorised person is required to submit less information under SUP 11.3.7 D than other persons, the appropriate regulator may ask for confirmation of details already held by it or any additional information required under SUP 11.5.1R.

SUP 11.3.14

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Pursuant to section 188 of the Act (Assessment: consultation with EC competent authorities), the appropriate regulator is obliged to consult any appropriate Home State regulatorbefore making a determination under section 185 of the Act (Assessment: general).

Notification when reducing control

SUP 11.3.15A

See Notes

handbook-directions
A notice given to the appropriate regulator by a person who is reducing or ceasing to have control over a UK domestic firm, as set out in SUP 11.4.2Ror SUP 11.4.2A R must:
(1) be in writing; and
(2) provide details of the extent of control (if any) which the controller will have following the change in control.

Joint notifications

SUP 11.3.17

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Notifications to the appropriate regulator by proposed controllers and controllers under Part XII of the Act may be made on a joint basis outlined in SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G.

SUP 11.4

Requirements on firms

SUP 11.4.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
A summary of the notification requirements in this section is given in SUP 11 Annex 1.

Requirement to notify a change in control

SUP 11.4.2

See Notes

handbook-rule
A UK domestic firm, other than a non-directive firm, must notify the appropriate regulator of any of the following events concerning the firm:
(1) a person acquiring control;
(2) an existing controllerincreasing control;
(3) an existing controllerreducing control;
(4) an existing controllerceasing to have control.

SUP 11.4.2A

See Notes

handbook-rule

A non-directive firm (including, in the case of an FCA-authorised person, a firm with only a limited permission) must notify the appropriate regulator of any of the following events concerning the firm:

  1. (1) a personbecoming controller of the firm; or
  2. (2) an existing controller ceasing to be controller of the firm.

SUP 11.4.4

See Notes

handbook-rule
An overseas firm must notify the appropriate regulator if a person becomes a controller of the firm, increases or reduces control over the firm or ceases to have control over the firm

SUP 11.4.6

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If a firm is required to obtain approval from the Society of Lloyd's for any changes in its controllers, it should apply for this approval as well as notifying the PRA.

Content and timing of the notification

SUP 11.4.7

See Notes

handbook-rule
The notification by a firm under SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R or SUP 11.4.4 R must:
(1) be in writing;
(2) contain the information set out in:
(a) in the case of acquiring or increasing control, SUP 11.5.1 R (subject to SUP 11.5); or
(b) in the case of reducing control, SUP 11.5.7 R; and
(3) be made:
(a) as soon as the firm becomes aware that a person, whether alone or acting in concert, has decided to acquire control or to increase or reduce control; or
(b) if the change in controltakes place without the knowledge of the firm, within 14 days of the firm becoming aware of the change in control concerned.

SUP 11.4.8

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Principle 11 requires firms to be open and cooperative with the appropriate regulator . A firm should discuss with the appropriate regulator , at the earliest opportunity, any prospective changes of which it is aware, in a controller'sor proposed controller's shareholdings or voting power (if the change is material). These discussions may take place before the formal notification requirement in SUP 11.4.2 R or SUP 11.4.4 R arises. (See also SUP 11.3.2 G). As a minimum, the appropriate regulator considers that such discussions should take place before a person:
(1) enters into any formal agreement in respect of the purchase of shares or a proposed acquisition or merger which would result in a change in control (whether or not the agreement is conditional upon any matter, including the appropriate regulator's approval); or
(2) purchases any shareoptions, warrants or other financial instruments, the exercise of which would result in the person acquiring control or any other change in control.

SUP 11.4.9

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The obligationsin SUP 11.4.2 R and SUP 11.4.2A R apply whether or not the controller himself has given or intends to give a notification, in accordance with his obligations under the Act.

Identity of controllers

SUP 11.4.10

See Notes

handbook-rule
A firm must take reasonable steps to keep itself informed about the identity of its controllers.

SUP 11.4.11

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The steps that the appropriate regulator expects a firm to take to comply with SUP 11.4.10 R include, if applicable:
(1) monitoring its register of shareholders (or equivalent);
(2) monitoring notifications to the firm in accordance with Part 22 of the Companies Act 2006;
(3) monitoring public announcements made under the relevant disclosure provisions of the Takeover Code or other rules made by the Takeover Panel;
(4) monitoring the entitlement of delegates, or persons with voting rights in respect of group insurance contracts, to exercise or control voting power at general meetings.

SUP 11.5

Notifications by firms

SUP 11.5.1

See Notes

handbook-rule

Information to be submitted by the firm (see SUP 11.4.7 R (2)(a))

SUP 11.5.2

See Notes

handbook-rule
The notification from a firm under SUP 11.4.7 R (2)(a) need only contain as much of the information set out in SUP 11.5.1 R as the firm is able to provide, having made reasonable enquiries from persons and other sources as appropriate.

SUP 11.5.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Firms are reminded that a change in control may give rise to a change in the groupcompanies to which the appropriate regulator's consolidated financial supervision requirements apply. Also, the firm may for the first time become subject to the appropriate regulator's requirements on consolidated financial supervision (or equivalent requirements imposed by another EEA State). This may apply, for example, if the controller is itself an authorised undertaking. The appropriate regulator may therefore request such a firm, controller or proposed controller to provide evidence that, following the change in control, the firm will meet the requirements of these rules, if appropriate.

SUP 11.5.4A

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Firms are also reminded that a change in control may give rise to a notification as a financial conglomerate or a change in the supplementary supervision of a financial conglomerate (see GENPRU 3.1 (Cross sector groups) and GENPRU 3.2 (Third country groups)).

Form of notification when a person reduces control

SUP 11.5.7

See Notes

handbook-rule
A notification of a proposed reduction in control must:
(1) give the name of the controller; and
(2) provide details of the extent of control (if any) which the controller will have following the change in control.

Joint notifications

SUP 11.5.8

See Notes

handbook-guidance
A firm and its controller or proposed controller may discharge an obligation to notify the appropriate regulator by submitting a single joint section 178 notice containing the information required from the firm and the controller or proposed controller. In this case, the section 178 notice may be used on behalf of both the firm and the controller or proposed controller.

SUP 11.5.9

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If a person is proposing a change in control over more than one firm within a group, then the controller or proposed controller may submit a single section 178 notice to the PRA in respect of all those firms which are PRA-authorised persons and a single section 178 notice to the FCA in respect of all those firms which are not PRA-authorised persons. The section 178 notice should contain all the required information as if separate notifications had been made, but information and documentation need not be duplicated within the set of information sent to each regulator.

SUP 11.5.10

See Notes

handbook-guidance
When an event occurs (for example, a group restructuring or a merger) as a result of which:
(1) more than one firm in a group would undergo a change in control; or
(2) a single firm would experience more than one change in control;
then, to avoid duplication of documentation, all the firms and their controllers or proposed controllers may discharge their respective obligations to notify the appropriate regulator by submitting a single section 178 notice to the PRA containing one set of information in relation to all the firms which are PRA-authorised persons and a single section 178 notice to the FCA containing one set of information in relation to all the firms which are not PRA-authorised persons.

SUP 11.6

Subsequent notification requirements by firms

Changes in the information provided to the appropriate regulator

SUP 11.6.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Firms are reminded that SUP 15.6.4 R requires them to notify the appropriate regulator if information notified under SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R or SUP 11.4.4 R was false, misleading, inaccurate, incomplete, or changes, in a material particular. This would include a firm becoming aware of information that it would have been required to provide under SUP 11.5.1 R if it had been aware of it.

SUP 11.6.2

See Notes

handbook-rule
After submitting a section 178 notice under SUP 11.4.2 R or SUP 11.4.2A R and until the change in control occurs (or is no longer to take place), SUP 15.6.4 R and SUP 15.6.5 R apply to a UK domestic firm in relation to any information its controller or proposed controller provided to the appropriate regulator under SUP 11.5.1 R or SUP 11.3.7 D.

SUP 11.6.3

See Notes

handbook-rule
During the period in SUP 11.6.2 R, a UK domestic firm must take reasonable steps to keep itself informed about the circumstances of the controller or the proposed controller to which the notification related.

Notification that the change in control has taken place

SUP 11.6.4

See Notes

handbook-rule
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator :
(1) when a change in control which was previously notified under SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A Ror SUP 11.4.4 R has taken place; or
(2) if the firm has grounds for reasonably believing that the event will not now take place.

SUP 11.6.5

See Notes

handbook-rule
The notification under SUP 11.6.4 R must be given within 14 days of the change in control or of having the grounds (as applicable).

SUP 11.7

Acquisition or increase of control: assessment process and criteria

SUP 11.7.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The assessment process and the assessment criteria are set out in sections 185 to 191 of the Act.

SUP 11.7.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Section 191A deals with the procedure the appropriate regulator must follow where the appropriate regulator reasonably believes that:
(1) there has been a failure to give notice under section 178(1) of the Act in circumstances where notice was required;
(2) there has been a breach of a condition imposed under section 187 of the Act; or
(3) there are grounds for objecting to control on the basis of the matters in section 186 of the Act.

SUP 11.7.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The appropriate regulator may serve restriction notices in certain circumstances in accordance with section 191B of the Act.

SUP 11.7.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The appropriate regulator may apply to the court for an order for the sale of shares in accordance with section 191C of the Act.

SUP 11.7.13

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Before making a determination under section 185 orgiving a warning notice under section 191A, the appropriate regulator must comply with the requirements as to consultation with EC competent authorities set out in section 188 of the Act and with the other regulator set out in sections 187A, 187B and 191A of the Act, as applicable.

SUP 11.8

Changes in the circumstances of existing controllers

SUP 11.8.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator immediately it becomes aware of any of the following matters in respect of one or more of its controllers:
(1) if a controller, or any entity subject to his control, is or has been the subject of any legal action or investigation which might put into question the integrity of the controller;
(2) if there is a significant deterioration in the financial position of a controller;
(3) if a corporate controller undergoes a substantial change or series of changes in its governing body;
(4) if a controller, who is authorised in another EEA State as a MiFID investment firm , CRD credit institution or UCITS management company or under the Insurance Directives or the Insurance Mediation Directive, ceases to be so authorised (registered in the case of an IMD insurance intermediary).

SUP 11.8.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
In respect of SUP 11.8.1 R (3), the appropriate regulator considers that, in particular, the removal or replacement of a majority of the members of a governing body (in a single event or a series of connected events) is a substantial change and should be notified.

SUP 11.8.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If a matter has already been notified to the appropriate regulator (for example, as part of the firm's application for a Part 4A permission ), the firm need only inform the appropriate regulator of any significant developments.

SUP 11.8.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The level of a firm's awareness of its controller's circumstances will depend on its relationship with that controller. The appropriate regulator does not expect firms to implement systems or procedures so as to be certain of any changes in its controllers' circumstances. However, the appropriate regulator does expect firms to notify it of such matters if the firm becomes aware of them, and it expects firms to make enquiries of its controllers if it becomes aware that one of the events in SUP 11.8.1 R may occur or has occurred.

SUP 11.8.6

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The appropriate regulator may ask the firm for additional information following a notification under SUP 11.8.1 R in order to satisfy itself that the controller continues to be suitable (see SUP 2: Information gathering by the appropriate regulator on its own initiative).

SUP 11.9

Changes in close links

Requirement to notify changes in close links

SUP 11.9.1B

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) A firm must notify the PRA that it has become or ceased to be closely linked with any person and ensure the following:
(a) where a firm has elected to report changes in close links on a monthly basis under SUP 11.9.5B R, the notification must be made in line with SUP 11.9.3CA R; and
(b) in any other case, the notification must be made by completing the Close Links Notification Form (see SUP 11.9.3C G) and must include the information in SUP 11.9.3D G.
(2) If a group includes more than one firm, a single close links notification may be made by completing the Close Links Notification Form or the Close Links Monthly Report (as applicable). and so satisfy the notification requirement for all firms in the group. Nevertheless, the requirement to notify, and the responsibility for notifying, remains with each firm in the group.

SUP 11.9.2A

See Notes

handbook-guidance
A firm may elect not to include the following close links in the notification submitted under SUP 11.9.1A R, SUP 11.9.1B R, SUP 11.9.5A R, SUP 11.9.5B R or SUP 16.5:
(1) shares held in its capacity as custodian provided it can only exercise any voting rights attached to such shares under instructions given in writing or by electronic means;
(2) shares held in its capacity as collateral taker under a collateral transaction which involves the outright transfer of securities provided it does not declare any intention of exercising (and does not exercise) the voting rights attaching to such shares.

SUP 11.9.3-B

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The PRA may ask the firm for additional information following a notification under SUP 11.9.1B R in order to satisfy itself that the firm continues to satisfy the threshold conditions.

Form of notification and method of submission

SUP 11.9.3C

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The Close Links Notification Form approved by the PRA for notifications under may be found at the PRA website.

SUP 11.9.3CA

See Notes

handbook-rule
The notification under SUP 11.9.1BR (1)(a) must be made electronically by completing the Close Links Monthly Report and submitting it through the relevant platform provided by the PRA.

SUP 11.9.3CB

See Notes

handbook-rule
The Close Links Monthly Report must contain the information specified in SUP 16 Annex 35A.

SUP 11.9.3D

See Notes

handbook-guidance
(1) The notification in SUP 11.9.1AR (1)(b) and SUP 11.9.1BR (1)(b) should contain a list of all persons with whom the firm is aware that it has close links, at the time the notification is made, and, for each such person, state:
(a) its name;
(b) the nature of the close links;
(c) if the close links are with a body corporate, its country of incorporation, address and registered number; and
(d) if the close links are with an individual, their date and place of birth.
(2) The firm must also submit a group organisation chart.

Timing of notification requirement

SUP 11.9.4B

See Notes

handbook-rule
The firm must make a notification to the PRA under SUP 11.9.1B R:
(1) as soon as reasonably practicable and no later than one month after it becomes aware that it has become or ceased to be closely linked with any person; or
(2) where a firm has elected to report on a monthly basis, within fifteen business days of the end of each month by completing the Close Links Monthly Report for that month and must submit the group organisation chart on a quarterly basis unless there have been no changes since the submission of the previous organisation chart to the PRA, in which case the group organisation chart is not required.

Electing to notify changes in close links monthly

SUP 11.9.5B

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) A firm elects to report changes in close links on a monthly basis by sending a written notice of election to the firm's usual supervisory contacts at both the PRA and FCA.
(2) An election to report changes in close links on a monthly basis will stand until such time as the firm gives its usual supervisory contacts at both the PRA and FCA at least one month's written notice of its intention to cease reporting changes in close links on a monthly basis.

SUP 11.9.6B

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The PRA considers that monthly reporting of changes in close links will ordinarily only be appropriate for firms forming part of large groups.

SUP 11 Annex 1

Summary of notification requirements

SUP 11 Annex 6G

Aggregation of holdings for the purpose of prudential assessment of controllers

Q1: What is this guidance about?

A: This guidance considers when one person's holding of shares or voting power must be aggregated with that of another person for the purpose of determining whether those persons have decided to acquire or increase control over a UK authorised person, as contemplated by section 181 or 182 of the Act, such that notice must be given to the appropriate regulator in accordance with section 178 (Obligation to notify the Authority: acquisitions of control) of the Act before making the acquisition or deciding to increase their control.

Q2: When are shares or voting power to be aggregated?

A: There are two situations which would require the holdings of two or more persons to be aggregated for the purpose of determining whether they are acquiring or increasing control within the meaning of section 181 or 182 of the Act. The first is where shares or voting power are held or to be held by persons 'acting in concert' - this is referred to in sections 178(2) and 422(3) of the Act. The second is where a person (H) is attributed with voting power in a firm through the application of any of the circumstances described in section 422(5)(a) of the Act ('deemed voting power') in addition to any other voting power that he holds (or is deemed to hold) in that firm. These two situations may apply concurrently. For example, H could be acting in concert pursuant to section 178(2) of the Act and have deemed voting power under section 422(5)(a)(i) of the Act where H has concluded an agreement that obliges him and a third party shareholder in the firm to adopt, by concerted exercise of the voting power they hold, a lasting common policy towards the management of that firm.

Acting in Concert

Q3: What does 'acting in concert' mean for these purposes?

A: There is no definition of this phrase in the Act. The Glossary to the Guidelines for the prudential assessment of acquisitions and increases in holdings in the financial sector required by Directive 2007/44/EC (the 'Acquisitions Directive') published jointly by CEBS, CEIOPS and CESR (the 'Level 3 Guidelines') states that, for the purposes of the Acquisitions Directive, 'persons are "acting in concert" when each of them decides to exercise his rights linked to the shares he acquires in accordance with an explicit or implicit agreement made between them.' The relevant persons must therefore (1) hold shares and/or voting power in the firm or its parent undertaking, and (2) reach a decision to exercise the rights linked to those shares in accordance with an agreement (in writing or otherwise) between them.

While the rights 'linked to' shares for these purposes are most likely to be voting rights, persons may be 'acting in concert' where they decide to exercise other share-related rights, either in addition to or instead of voting rights, in accordance with an agreement made between them. As indicated in the Level 3 Guidelines, persons will begin acting in concert when they take the decision to exercise their rights in accordance with an agreement between them. This decision may be taken before or after the time the relevant persons decide to purchase shares in the firm. The agreement need not require them always to exercise the rights attached to their respective shares in the same way - see, for example, the response to Question 11 in respect of passive shareholdings.

Q4: Does section 178(2) of the Act have the effect that two or more persons who already hold shares or voting power in a firm or its parent undertaking and who subsequently decide to exercise their voting or other rights in accordance with an agreement between them are required to give prior notice under section 178(1) of the Act, if their aggregated holdings fall within any of the cases set out in section 181(2) of the Act or increase by any of the steps set out in section 182(2) of the Act?

A: Yes. Section 178(1) of the Act applies when a person 'decides to acquire or increase control over a UK authorised person...'. For the purposes of Part XII of the Act, a person's acquisition of control of a firm is determined by virtue of his holdings of shares or voting power in that firm or in a parent undertaking of that firm. In determining whether control has been acquired, section 178(2) of the Act requires the holdings of shares or voting power of persons who are acting in concert to be aggregated. As noted in the response to Question 3, persons begin acting in concert when they decide to exercise their voting or other rights in accordance with an agreement between them. Once this decision has been taken, shares or voting rights must be aggregated to determine whether control has been or will be acquired. The same analysis applies to increases in control and reductions in control, as set out in sections 182 and 183 of the Act, respectively. Accordingly, the requirement to aggregate holdings of shares and/or voting power under section 178(2) of the Act may apply to existing holdings, as well as to new purchases, of shares and/or voting power.

Q5: What types of arrangement amount to acting in concert in acquiring or holding shares or voting power for the purposes of these Sections of the Act?

A: Although the term 'acting in concert' has a potentially wide meaning, not all common actions taken by shareholders in relation to shares or voting power will require the aggregation of holdings of shares or voting power for the purposes of section 178 of the Act. In particular, there are many circumstances in which persons, who between them hold 10% or more of the shares or voting power in a firm or its parent undertaking, may engage in a concerted exercise of voting power, without this amounting to 'acting in concert' in a manner requiring aggregation of their holdings under section 178(2) of the Act. An agreement by one shareholder to vote with other shareholders on a specific issue, for example, rather than on an ongoing or sustained basis, would not generally be regarded by the appropriate regulator as acting in concert so as to require a section 178 notice to be given by that group of shareholders, even where the group collectively holds 10% or more of the voting power in the firm. However, see further on this point in the response to Question 9.

Deemed voting power

Q6 : What is meant by 'deemed voting power'?

A: 'Deemed voting power' is the term used in this guidance to describe those cases set out in section 422(5)(a) of the Act in which one person's holding of voting power is attributed to another. There may be circumstances in which deemed voting power must be aggregated with other (actual or deemed) voting power for the purposes of determining whether section 181(2)(b) of the Act applies, but the cases set out in section 422(5)(a) may result in the attribution of voting power to a person (H) without aggregation where H holds no other actual or deemed voting power in the relevant firm and is not acting in concert with any other person (for example, where H exercises the voting power attaching to shares deposited with him pursuant to a discretion granted to him in the absence of (1) specific instructions from the actual shareholders, and (2) any agreement with the shareholders as to how he should exercise that voting power or any other rights attached to those shares - see section 422(5)(a)(vi) of the Act).

The provisions of section 422(5)(a) of the Act were transposed into the Act in order to implement Directive 2004/109/EC (the 'Transparency Directive'). These provisions have direct application to Part XII of the Act, and in particular to the meaning of 'voting power' for the purposes of that Part, by virtue of section 191G (Interpretation) of the Act.

In introducing the cases in which the voting power of a third party may be attributed to H, the Transparency Directive refers to the ability 'to acquire, to dispose of, or to exercise voting rights in any of the [relevant] cases or a combination of them.' No new purchase of shares is therefore required in order for these attribution provisions to apply.

Q7: Where X holds 10% of the voting power in a firm and X is the subsidiary of H, which itself has no holding at all directly in the firm, is H a controller?

A: Yes. This follows from section 422(5)(a)(v) of the Act, which provides that voting power includes, in relation to a person (H), voting power held by a subsidiary of H. The voting power held by X is attributed to H, making H a controller.

For the purposes of section 178 of the Act, both H and its subsidiary, would be required to notify and obtain the appropriate regulator's approval prior to acquiring or increasing control.

Practical application of aggregation of holdings

Q8: Does there need to be a new purchase of shares or voting rights in order for the notification requirement to arise?

A: No. As stated in the response to Question 4, the aggregation of shares and/or voting power is relevant to existing holdings of shares and/or voting power where no new purchase is to take place, as well as to new purchases.

Q9: Do the aggregation provisions apply to shareholders agreeing how they will vote on a particular issue, for example, for reasons of good corporate governance?

A: We would not generally regard shareholders as acting in concert for the purposes of section 178(2) of the Act or as having deemed voting power requiring aggregation pursuant to section 422(5)(a)(i) of the Act simply because they have agreed to vote together on a particular issue, for example:

rejection of a proposal for the remuneration of directors;
appointment/removal of a particular director; or
approval/rejection of an acquisition or disposal proposed by the firm's board of directors.


However, there may be circumstances in which voting together on a specific issue would amount to acting in concert for these purposes. Where, for example, shareholders who have no previous agreement in relation to the exercise of their voting rights agree to act together for the purpose of voting through the resolution(s) required to enable them to obtain control of the board of a firm, that is likely to constitute acting in concert for these purposes, although it may not fall within section 422(5)(a)(i) of the Act, if those shareholders have no 'lasting common policy' towards the firm's management.

Those circumstances are likely to be exceptional and, while it is not possible in this guidance to give a definitive list of how they might arise, the appropriate regulator remains willing to provide firms with individual guidance on the point in cases of uncertainty.

Q10: What about agreements that specific issues will be put to a vote of shareholders?

A: An agreement that does no more than require particular management actions to be put to a vote of shareholders, such as major acquisitions, disposals or new issues of shares, would not of itself trigger the requirement to notify. This is because there is no agreement as to how the shareholders will exercise their rights on, or whether the shareholders will adopt a common policy towards, those proposals. An agreement which gives certain shareholders veto rights over key decisions by the firm may, however, bring those shareholders within the ambit of section 178(1) of the Act regardless of whether they are acting in concert, by virtue of their being able to exercise significant influence over the management of the firm - see section 181(2)(c) of the Act.

Q11: What about agreements as to how to exercise voting power on future issues generally?

A: This would involve acting in concert, and thus require the aggregation of holdings by the parties to the agreement, for the purposes of section 178 of the Act. It may also fall within the ambit of section 422(5)(a)(i) of the Act, but this will depend on whether the parties to the agreement have adopted a lasting common policy that relates to the management of the relevant undertaking.

Acting in concert not only covers agreements to exercise voting power, but may also arise as a result of 'passive shareholder agreements'. In these, a shareholder (the 'passive shareholder') agrees explicitly or implicitly with another shareholder or group of shareholders (the 'active shareholder') that it will not exercise its voting power. For example, where the passive shareholder holds 2% of the voting power and the active shareholder holds 9% of the voting power, each would be regarded as having control (11% of the voting power) because their holdings are required to be aggregated under the acting in concert provisions. However, persons that acquire shares as part of an investment or hedging programme and adhere consistently to a stated policy of not voting those shares would not, by reason of that policy alone, be regarded as having entered into an agreement with other shareholders and so would not be regarded as acting in concert with them.

Q12: Are multiple purchasers of shares, who are each party to a share purchase agreement and whose combined shareholding will fall within section 181(2) of the Act, required to give notice pursuant to section 178(1) of the Act, on the basis that the existence of the agreement means they are acting in concert?

A: If it is clear that the only 'agreement' between one or more persons consists in their being parties to the same share purchase agreement, the terms of which pertain strictly to the purchase of shares and do not govern or otherwise seek to regulate the purchasers' relationship with each other following completion of the share purchase, those purchasers would not be regarded by the appropriate regulator as acting in concert for the purpose of requiring notification under section 178 of the Act. If, however, the share purchase agreement contains provisions governing or otherwise regulating the exercise of the rights linked to the shares to be acquired by the purchasers (or the purchasers have entered into or propose to enter into a shareholders' or other agreement with similar effect), the proposed acquirers may be regarded by the appropriate regulator to be acting in concert for the purpose of requiring notification under section 178 of the Act, depending on the terms of the relevant agreement(s). Further guidance on the effect of some of the typical provisions included in shareholders' agreements is contained in the response to Question 14. Prospective shareholders who are uncertain as to the effect of any of the provisions of their agreement(s) in these circumstances may wish to seek (either formally or informally) individual guidance at an early stage from the appropriate regulator .

Where there is evidence to suggest that the parties do in fact intend to co-operate in relation to the exercise of voting or other rights relating to the shares they are acquiring, notwithstanding that no provisions to that effect appear in the share purchase or other written agreement, this may warrant the conclusion that there is an implicit agreement between them by virtue of which they are acting in concert.

Q13: What about agreements that are conditional on any necessary approval by the appropriate regulator?

A: Notice must be given under section 178(1) of the Act before control is acquired. The point in time at which this occurs may depend on a number of circumstances. In the context of a share purchase agreement that provides for appropriate regulator approval of the purchaser to be obtained before the acquisition is completed, the purchaser will not usually be required to give a section 178 notice prior to entering into the agreement. However, there may be circumstances in which control is actually acquired at the time the agreement is entered into, for example, where the parties have agreed that the purchaser will be entitled (whether by virtue of a power of attorney contained in the agreement or otherwise) to exercise the voting rights attached to the shares being acquired in the period between signing and completion. In that case, the purchaser will need to consider whether to give notice under section 178(1) prior to entering into the agreement.

Q14: What about pre-emption rights, 'drag along' rights and 'tag along' rights?

A: Typical examples of these arrangements are unlikely to trigger the requirement to notify under section 178(1) of the Act in themselves.

Bare pre-emption rights will simply indicate each shareholder's (the 'offeror') agreement to give fellow shareholders an option to purchase his shares, if he wishes to sell. The acquisition of shares under these arrangements cannot take place until the offeror decides to sell his shares and other shareholders decide to buy them.

Shareholders will not usually be regarded as acting in concert in holding or acquiring shares simply by agreeing to give each other future pre-emption rights. In the event that some shareholders enter into an agreement to buy the offeror's shares, those shareholders are only likely to be regarded as acting in concert by virtue of that agreement in the circumstances described in the response to Question 12 above.

The existence of 'drag along' and 'tag along' rights in a shareholders' agreement designed to ensure equivalent treatment of shareholders of the same class in the event an offer is made, or to be made, by a non-shareholder to purchase the shares of any single shareholder in a private company would not, in and of themselves, result in the shareholders who have the benefit of those rights being considered to be acting in concert in their holding or acquiring of shares.

Q15: How does this guidance relate to the definition of 'acting in concert' in the Takeover Code (the 'Code')?

A: Although similar terminology may be used, the definition of 'acting in concert' in the Code derives from the Takeovers Directive and has particular relevance in determining whether the relationship between persons with interests in shares carrying voting rights is such as to require those rights to be aggregated for the purpose of assessing whether, under Rule 9.1, the threshold for the making of a mandatory offer to all other shareholders in a company to which the Code applies has been reached. The notes on the definition in the Code and on Rule 9.1 make clear that the Takeover Panel's views in relation to acting in concert '...relate only to the Code and should not be taken as guidance on any other statutory or regulatory provisions'.

This guidance is given for a quite different purpose. It is relevant to considering whether the holdings of persons who have reached an agreement in relation to the shares or voting rights they do or will hold must be aggregated for the purpose of determining whether they are subject to the requirements for prudential assessment specified in sections 185 et seq of the Act. This guidance has no relevance to how 'acting in concert' is to be interpreted in the context of the Code.

Export chapter as

SUP 16

Reporting requirements

SUP 16.1

Application

SUP 16.1.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
This chapter applies to every firm and qualifying parent undertaking within a category listed in column (2) of the table in SUP 16.1.3 R and in accordance with column (3) of that table.

SUP 16.1.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The only categories of firm to which no section of this chapter applies are:
(1) an ICVC;
(2) an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm, unless it is:
(a) a firm of a type listed in SUP 16.1.3 R as a type of firm to which SUP 16.6, SUP 16.7A, SUP 16.9, SUP 16.12, or SUP 16.14 applies; or
(b) an insurer with permission to effect or carry out life policies;

SUP 16.1.3

See Notes

handbook-rule

Application of different sections of SUP 16 (excluding SUP 16.13, SUP 16.15, SUP 16.16 and SUP 16.17)

SUP 16.1.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
(1) This chapter contains requirements to report to the appropriate regulator on a regular basis. These requirements include reports relating to a firm's financial condition, and to its compliance with other rules and requirements which apply to the firm. Where the relevant requirements are set out in another section of the Handbook, this chapter contains cross references. An example of this is financial reporting for insurers and friendly societies.
(2) Where such requirements already apply to a firm under legislation other than the Act, they are not referred to in this chapter. An example of this is reporting to the appropriate regulator by building societies under those parts of the Building Societies Act 1986 which have not been repealed.
(3) Requirements for individual firms reflect:
(a) the category of firm;
(b) the nature of business carried on;
(c) whether a firm has its registered office (or if it does not have a registered office, its head office) in the United Kingdom;
(d) whether a firm is an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm; and
(e) the regulated activities the firm undertakes.

SUP 16.1.7

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Where a PRA-authorised person is required to notify or provide any information to (a) the appropriate regulator by a PRA Handbook provision and (b) the FCA by the equivalent provision in the FCA Handbook, the PRA-authorised person is expected to comply with both provisions.

SUP 16.2

Purpose

SUP 16.2.1A

See Notes

handbook-guidance
(1) In order to discharge its functions under the Act, the PRA needs timely and accurate information about firms. The provision of this information on a regular basis enables the PRA to build up over time a picture of firms' circumstances and behaviour.
(2) A firm is required to deal with the PRA in an open, cooperative and timely way, and to appropriately disclose to the PRA anything relating to the firm of which the PRA would reasonably expect notice. The reporting requirements are part of the PRA's approach to amplifying these requirements by setting out in more detail the information that the PRA requires. They supplement the rules relating to information gathering and notifications to the PRA. The reports required under these rules help the PRA to monitor firms' compliance with the requirement to maintain adequate financial resources, and with other requirements and standards under the regulatory system.

SUP 16.3

General provisions on reporting

Application

SUP 16.3.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance

The effect of SUP 16.1.1 R is that this section applies to every firm except:

  1. (1) an ICVC;
  2. (2) an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm, which is not:
    1. (a) a firm of a type listed in SUP 16.1.3 R as a firm to which section SUP 16.6 or SUP 16.12 applies;
    2. (b) an insurer with permission to effect or carry out life policies;
  3. (3) a UCITS qualifier.

Structure of the chapter

SUP 16.3.2A

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This chapter has been split into the following sections, covering:
(1) [deleted];
(2) [deleted];
(3) compliance reports (SUP 16.6);
(4) persistency reports (SUP 16.8);
(5) annual appointed representatives reports (SUP 16.9);
(6) product sales data reporting (SUP 16.11);
(7) integrated regulatory reporting (SUP 16.12);
(8) reporting under the Payment Services Regulations (SUP 16.13);
(9) client money and asset return (SUP 16.14);
(10) reporting under the Electronic Money Regulations (SUP 16.15).
(11) prudent valuation reporting (SUP 16.16);
(12) remuneration reporting (SUP 16.17); and
(13) AIFMD reporting (SUP 16.18).

SUP 16.3.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The annual controllers, annual close links, persistency and annual appointed representatives reports sections are the same for all categories of firm to which they apply.

SUP 16.3.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The compliance section isset out by category of firm, with detailed requirements set out in tables giving:
(1) a brief description of each report;
(2) the frequency with which the report is required; and
(3) the due date for submission of the report.

SUP 16.3.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Further requirements about the reports, such as form and content, are set out in the sections for each category of firm, where this is appropriate. In many cases, however, it is more appropriate to provide this information by means of a separate annex; in these cases the relevant section refers to the annex.

How to submit reports

SUP 16.3.6

See Notes

handbook-rule
A periodic report required to be submitted under this chapter, or under any other rule, must be submitted in writing in accordance with SUP 16.3.7 R to SUP 16.3.10 G, unless:
(1) a contrary intention appears; or
(2) the report is required under the listing rules.

SUP 16.3.7

See Notes

handbook-rule
A report or data item must:
(1) give the firm reference number (or all the firm reference numbers in those cases where a report is submitted on behalf of a number of firms,as set out in SUP 16.3.25 G); and
(2) if submitted in paper form, be submitted with the cover sheet contained in SUP 16 Annex 13 R fully completed.

SUP 16.3.8

See Notes

handbook-rule
A written report must be delivered to the appropriate regulator by one of the methods listed in SUP 16.3.9 R.

SUP 16.3.9

See Notes

handbook-rule

Method of submission of reports (see SUP 16.3.8 R)

SUP 16.3.10

See Notes

handbook-guidance
(1) The current published address of the FCA for postal submission of reports is:
(2) The current published address of the FCA for hand delivery of reports is:
(a)
if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator is based in London, or:
(b)
if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in Edinburgh.
(3) The current published email address and fax number for the FCA's Central Reporting team is regulatory.reports@fca.org.uk and 020 7066 3905. The Central Reporting team does not handle general correspondence between firms and the appropriate regulator . Accordingly, firms should not make submissions to the Central Reporting team's email address or fax number other than as directed in SUP 16.3.8 R.

Complete reporting

SUP 16.3.11

See Notes

handbook-rule
A firm must submit reports required under this chapter to the appropriate regulator containing all the information required.

SUP 16.3.12

See Notes

handbook-guidance
SUP 15.6 refers to and contains requirements regarding the steps that firms must take to ensure that information provided to the appropriate regulator is accurate and complete. Those requirements apply to reports required to be submitted under this chapter.

Timely reporting

SUP 16.3.13

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) A firm must submit a report required by this chapter in the frequency, and so as to be received by the appropriate regulator no later than the due date, specified for that report.
(2) If the due date for submission of a report required by this chapter falls on a day which is not a business day, the report must be submitted so as to be received by the appropriate regulator no later than the first business day after the due date.
(3) If the due date for submission of a report required by this chapter is a set period of time after the quarter end, the quarter ends will be the following dates, unless another rule or the reporting form states otherwise:
(b) 3 months after the firm's accounting reference date;
(c) 6 months after the firm's accounting reference date; and
(d) 9 months after the firm's accounting reference date.
(4) If the due date for submission of a report required by this chapter is a set period of time after the end of a half-year, a quarter, or a month, the dates will be determined by (a) or (b) below except where otherwise indicated:
(b) monthly, 3 monthly or 6 months after the firm's accounting reference date, as the case may be.

Failure to submit reports

SUP 16.3.14

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) If a firm does not submit a complete report by the date on which it is due in accordance with the rules in, or referred to in, this chapter or the provisions of relevant legislation and any prescribed submission procedures, the firm must pay an administrative fee of £250.
(2) The administrative fee in (1) does not apply in respect of quarterly reports required to be submitted by credit unions whose liability to pay a periodic fee under FEES 4.2.1 R in respect of the A.1 activity group in FEES 4 Annex 1A and FEES 4 Annex 1B R , for the financial year prior to the due date for submission of the report, was limited to the payment of the minimum fee.

SUP 16.3.14A

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Failure to submit a report in accordance with the rules in, or referred to in, this chapter or the provisions of relevant legislation may also lead to the imposition of a financial penalty and other disciplinary sanctions. A firm may be subject to reporting requirements under relevant legislation other than the Act, not referred to in this chapter. An example of this is reporting to the appropriate regulator by building societies under those parts of the Building Societies Act 1986 which have not been repealed (see SUP 16.1.4 G). If it appears to the appropriate regulator that, in the exceptional circumstances of a particular case, the payment of any fee would be inequitable, the appropriate regulator may reduce or remit all or part of the fee in question which would otherwise be payable (see FEES 2.3).

SUP 16.3.15

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The appropriate regulator may from time to time send reminders to firms when reports are overdue. Firms should not, however, assume that the appropriate regulator has received a report merely because they have not received a reminder.

SUP 16.3.16

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The firm is responsible for ensuring delivery of the required report at the by the due date. If a report is received by the appropriate regulator after the due date and the firm believes its delivery arrangements were adequate, it may be required to provide proof of those arrangements. Examples of such proof would be:
(1) "proof of posting" receipts from a UK post office or overseas equivalent which demonstrates that the report was posted early enough to allow delivery by the due date in accordance with the delivery service standards prescribed by the relevant postal authority; or
(2) recorded postal delivery receipts showing delivery on the required day; or
(3) records of a courier service provider showing delivery on the required day.

Change of accounting reference date

SUP 16.3.17A

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) A firm must notify the appropriate regulator if it changes its accounting reference date.
(2) When a firm extends its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the previous accounting reference date.
(3) When a firm shortens its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the new accounting reference date.
(4) Notifications 5.3A and 5.5 (Core Information Requirements) apply to any notification made under (1).

SUP 16.3.18

See Notes

handbook-guidance
SUP 16.2.1 G emphasises the importance to the appropriate regulator of timely and accurate information. The extension of a firm's accounting period to more than 15 months may hinder the timely provision of relevant and important information to the appropriate regulator. This is because many due dates for reporting to the appropriate regulator are linked to firms' accounting reference dates. Indeed, for some categories of firm, the only reports required by the appropriate regulator have due dates for submission which are linked to the firm's accounting reference date. If the extension of a firm's accounting period appears likely to impair the effectiveness of the appropriate regulator's supervisory work, the appropriate regulator may take action to ensure that it continues to receive the information it requires on a timely basis. This may include the use of any of the tools of supervision set out in SUP 1.4.5 G.

SUP 16.3.19

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If more than one firm in a group intends to change its accounting reference date at the same time, a single notification may be given to the appropriate regulator , as described in SUP 15.7.8 G.

Notifications regarding financial information reporting under the EU CRR

SUP 16.3.19A

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) A firm must notify the PRA if it is required to report financial information in accordance with Article 99 (2) of the EU CRR.



[Note: Firms may use the "FINREP notification forms" that reside on this page of the Bank's website to make a notification according to SUP16.3.19A or B]
(2) A firm must notify the PRA when it ceases to report financial information in accordance with Article 99 (2) of the EU CRR.

SUP 16.3.19B

See Notes

handbook-rule
A firm must notify the PRA if it adjusts its reporting reference dates for financial information under Article 99 of the EU CRR from the calendar year to its accounting year-end.

Service of Notices Regulations

SUP 16.3.22

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Service of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1420) contain provisions relating to the service of documents on the appropriate regulator . They do not apply to reports required under SUP 16, because of the specific rules in this section.

Reports from groups

SUP 16.3.25

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If this chapter requires the submission of a report or data item covering a group, a single report or data item may be submitted, and so satisfy the requirements of all firms in the group. Such a report or data item should contain the information required from all of them, meet all relevant due dates and indicate all the firms on whose behalf it is submitted; if necessary a separate covering sheet should list the firms on whose behalf a report or data item is submitted. Nevertheless, the requirement to provide a report or data item, and the responsibility for the report or data item, remains with each firm in the group. However, reporting requirements that apply to a firm, by reason of the firm being a member of a financial conglomerate, are imposed on only one member of the financial conglomerate (see, for example, SUP 16.12.32 R).

SUP 16.3.26

See Notes

handbook-guidance

[deleted]

(1) [deleted]
(2) [deleted]
(3) [deleted]
(4) [deleted]
(5) [deleted]
(6) [deleted]

SUP 16.3.26A

See Notes

handbook-guidance

Examples of reports covering a group are:

(1) The compliance reports required from banks under SUP 16.6.4R;

(2) [deleted];

(3) [deleted];

(4) consolidated financial reports required from banks under SUP 16.12.5R;

(5) consolidated reporting statements required from securities and futures firms under SUP 16.12.11R;

(6) Reporting in relation to defined liquidity groups under SUP 16.12.

SUP 16.4

Annual controllers report

Application

SUP 16.4.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This section applies to every firm except those firms excluded from its operation by SUP 16.1.1.R and SUP 16.1.3 R.

SUP 16.4.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This section may be of relevance to a directive friendly society:
(1) if it has 10 members or less;
(2) if it has a delegate voting system and has 10 delegates or less; or
(3) if it has 20 members or less and effects or carries out group insurance contracts where one person may exercise one vote on behalf of the members of a group and one vote in their private capacity; or
where a member or delegate, whether alone or acting in concert, is entitled to exercise, or control the exercise of, 10% or more of the total voting power.

SUP 16.4.2A

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This section may be of relevance to non-directive firms.

SUP 16.4.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Requirements for notifications of a change in control can be found in SUP 11 (Controllers and close links).

Purpose

SUP 16.4.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
A firm and its controllers are required to notify certain changes in control (see SUP 11 (Controllers and close links)). The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is:
(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the appropriate regulator receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all of the controllers of a firm, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the effective supervision threshold conditions;
(2) to implement certain requirements relating to annual reporting of controllers which must be imposed on firms under the Investment Services Directive, the Banking Consolidation Directive, the Consolidated Life Directive and the Third Non-Life Directive; and
(3) to support the regulatory functions under Part 12of the Act (Notices of acquisitions of control over UK authorised persons) (see SUP 11 (Controllers and close links)).

Reporting requirement

SUP 16.4.5

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) [deleted]
(2) [deleted]
(3) [deleted]
(4) [deleted]
(4A) [deleted]
(4B) [deleted]
(5) [deleted]
(6) A firm must submit annually by electronic means to the appropriate regulator the Controllers Report which contains the information specified in the form in SUP 16 Annex 37A, within four months of the firm's accounting reference date.

SUP 16.4.7

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If a group includes more than one firm, a single annual controllers report may be submitted, and so satisfy the requirements of all firms in the group. Such a report should contain the information required from all of them, meet all relevant due dates, indicate all the firms on whose behalf it is submitted and give their firm reference numbers. Nevertheless, the requirement to provide a report, and the responsibility for the report, remain with each firm in the group.

SUP 16.4.9

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Firms are reminded of the requirement in SUP 11.4.10 R to take reasonable steps to keep themselves informed about the identity of their controllers.

Exceptions: friendly societies and building societies

SUP 16.4.10

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a firm is a friendly society or a building society, then it is required to submit a report under SUP 16.4.5 R only if it is aware that it has a controller.

SUP 16.4.11

See Notes

handbook-rule
In SUP 16.4.5 R and SUP 16.4.10 R, a building society may regard a person as not being a controller if that person is exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control under The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/774) (see SUP 11.3.2A G (2)).

Exception: insurers

SUP 16.4.12

See Notes

handbook-rule
An insurer need not submit a report under SUP 16.4.5 R to the extent that the information has already been provided to the appropriate regulator under IPRU(INS) 9.30R (Additional information on controllers).

SUP 16.5

Annual Close Links Reports

Application

SUP 16.5.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This section applies to every firm listed in SUP 11.1.1 R (1) to SUP 11.1.1 R (6), except those firms excluded from its operation by SUP 16.1.1 R and SUP 16.1.3 R or which have elected to report on a monthly basis in accordance with SUP 11.9.5 R.

Purpose

SUP 16.5.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
A firm is required to notify the appropriate regulator of changes to its close links (see SUP 11.9). The effective supervision threshold conditions provide that, if a firm has close links with another person, the matters which are relevant in determining whether a firm satisfies the condition of being capable of being effective supervised include:
(1) the nature of the relationship between the firm and that person;
(2) whether those links or that relationship are likely to prevent the appropriate regulator's effective supervision of the firm; and
(3) if the person is subject to the laws, regulations or administrative provisions of a territory which is not an EEA State, whether those foreign provisions, or any deficiency in their enforcement, would prevent the appropriate regulator's effective supervision of the firm.

SUP 16.5.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The purposes of the rules and guidance in this section are:
(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the appropriate regulator receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all persons with whom a firm has close links, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the effective supervision threshold conditions and to the protection of consumers; and
(2) to implement certain requirements relating to the provision of information on close links which must be imposed on firms under the 'Post-BCCI Directive'.

Report

SUP 16.5.4

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) [deleted]
(2) [deleted]
(3) [deleted]
(4) [deleted]
(5) [deleted]
(6) A firm must submit a report to the appropriate regulator annually by completing the Close Links Annual Report in SUP 16 Annex 36A which must be sent electronically to the appropriate regulator within four months of the firm'saccounting reference date.

SUP 16.5.4A

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a group includes more than one firm, a single close links notification may be made by completing the Annual Close Links Report and so satisfy the notification requirement for all firms in the group. Nevertheless, the requirement to notify, and the responsibility for notifying, remains with each firm in the group.

SUP 16.5.6

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If a group includes more than one firm, a single annual close links report may be submitted and so satisfy the requirements of all firms in the group. Such a report should contain the information required from all of them, meet all relevant due dates, indicate all the firms on whose behalf it is submitted and give their firm reference numbers. Nevertheless, the requirement to provide a report, and the responsibility for the report, remain with each firm in the group.

SUP 16.5.8

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a firm is an unincorporated friendly society, then it is only required to submit a report under SUP 16.5.4 R if it is aware that it has close links.

SUP 16.6

Compliance reports

Application

SUP 16.6.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The effect of SUP 16.1.1 R is that this section applies to every firm within a category listed in the left hand column of the table in SUP 16.6.2 G.

SUP 16.6.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance

Applicable provisions of this section (see SUP 16.6.1 G)

Purpose

SUP 16.6.3B

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The PRA performs part of its supervision work by reviewing and analysing information about firms' records of compliance with prudential requirements and standards. The type of report the PRA requires will vary, depending on the type of business a firm undertakes. This information helps the PRA to determine whether a firm is complying with the requirements applicable to its business, and what procedures it is operating to ensure its compliance.

Banks

SUP 16.6.4

See Notes

handbook-rule
A bank must submit compliance reports to the appropriate regulator in accordance with SUP 16.6.5 R.

SUP 16.6.5

See Notes

handbook-rule

Compliance reports from a bank (see SUP 16.6.4 R)

SUP 16.12

Integrated Regulatory Reporting

Application

SUP 16.12.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance

The effect of SUP 16.1.1 R is that this section applies to every firm carrying on business set out in column (1) of SUP 16.12.4 R except:

  1. (1) an incoming EEA firm with permission for cross border services only;
  2. (1A) an incoming EEA firm in relation to its carrying on of bidding in emissions auctions;
  3. (2) an oil market participant that is not subject to the requirements of IPRU(INV) Chapter 3;
  4. (3) an authorised professional firm (other than one that must comply with IPRU(INV) 3, 5 or 13 in accordance with IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R,or that is a CASS debt management firm, where SUP 16.12.4 R will apply in respect of the business the firm undertakes), which must (unless it is within (3A)) comply with SUP 16.12.30 R SUP 16.12.31 R;
  5. (3A) an authorised professional firm if the only regulated activity it carries on is credit-related regulated activity as a non-mainstream regulated activity; and
  6. (4) a financial conglomerate, which must comply with SUP 16.12.32 R: firms that are members of a financial conglomerate will have their own reporting requirements under SUP 16.12.32 R.

Purpose

SUP 16.12.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
  1. (1) Principle 4 requires firms to maintain adequate financial resources. The Interim Prudential sourcebooks, BIPRU, GENPRU and IFPRU set out the appropriate regulator's detailed capital adequacy requirements. By submitting regular data, firms enable the appropriate regulator to monitor their compliance with Principle 4 and their prudential requirements.
  2. (2) The data items submitted help the appropriate regulator analyse firms' financial and other conditions and performance and to understand their business. By means of further collation and review of the data which the data items provide, the appropriate regulator also uses the data items to identify developments across the financial services industry and its constituent sectors.
  3. (3) The requirements in this section differ according to a firm's regulated activity group (RAG), as different information is required to reflect different types of business. Standard formats are used for reporting, to assist compatibility between firms which carry on similar types of business. Timely submission is important to ensure the appropriate regulator has up-to-date information.

Reporting requirement

SUP 16.12.3

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) Any firm permitted to carry on any of the activities within each of the RAGs set out in column (1) of the table in SUP 16.12.4 R must:
(a)
(i) unless (ii) or (iii) applies, submit to the appropriate regulator the duly completed data items or other items applicable to the firm as set out in the provision referred to in column (2) of that table;
(ii) unless (iii) applies, where a firm is required to submit completed data items for more than one RAG, that firm must only submit the data item of the same name and purpose in respect of the lowest numbered RAG applicable to it, RAG 1 being the lowest and RAG12 the highest;
(iii) where a firm is, but for this rule, required to submit data items for more than one RAG and this includes the submission of data items in respect of fees, the FOS or FSCS levy, or threshold conditions, that firm must only submit these data items if they belong to the lowest numbered of the RAGs applicable to it;
(iv) in the case of a non-EEA bank, or an EEA bank (whether or not it has permission for accepting deposits) other than one with permission for cross border services only, any data items submitted should, unless indicated otherwise, only cover the activities of the branch operation in the United Kingdom;
in the format specified as applicable to the firm in the provision referred to in column (2);
(b) submit this information at the frequency and in respect of the periods set out in the provision referred to in column (3); and
(c) submit this information by the due date referred to in the provision referred to in column (4).
(2) Unless (3) applies, any data item in (1) must be submitted by electronic means made available by the appropriate regulator;
(3) Paragraph(2) does not apply to:
(a) credit unions solely in relation to the reporting requirement for RAG 1 activities where the following submission methods apply:
(i) Post to the Bank of England for postal submission:
Regulatory Data Group
Statistics and Regulatory Data Division (HO5 A-B)
Bank of England
Threadneedle Street
London
EC2R 8AH
(ii) Leaving the report marked for the attention of "Regulatory Data Group, Statistics and Regulatory Data Division (HO 5 A-B) at the Bank of England, Threadneedle Street, London, EC2R 8AH, and obtaining a dated receipt
(iii) Electronic mail
(CreditUnionReporting@BankofEngland.co.uk) or fax (020 7601 3334) to the Regulatory Data Group of the Bank of England
(iv) Online submission via the appropriate systems accessible from the appropriate regulator's website;
(aa) data item CCR008 from RAG 12 , where SUP 16.3.6 R to SUP 16.3.10 G will apply; (FCA Handbook only)
(b) firms in RAG 2 in relation to the reporting requirements for RAG 2 activities; and
(c) those data items specified as "No standard format", where SUP 16.3.6 R to SUP 16.3.10 G will apply.
(4) A firm that is a member of a financial conglomerate must also submit financial reports as required by SUP 16.12.32 R.

SUP 16.12.3A

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The following is designed to assist firms to understand how the reporting requirements set out in this chapter operate when the circumstances set out in SUP 16.12.3R (1)(a)(ii) apply.
(1) Example 1
A UK designated investment firm that undertakes activities in both RAG3 and RAG 7
Overlaying the requirements of RAG 3 ( data items ) with the requirements of RAG 7 shows the following: From this, the additional reports that are required are:
(a) [deleted]
(b) Professional indemnity insurance, where RAG 7 firms complete Section E of the RMAR, and therefore a RAG3 firm should complete that;
(c) [deleted]
(d) Training and competence data, where RAG3 firms should also complete Section G of RMAR;
(e) Conduct of business data, where RAG3 firms should complete Section H of RMAR.
(f) [deleted]
(g) [deleted]
The reporting frequency and submission times for items (b), (d) and (e) above are then derived from the rules applicable to firms in SUP 16.12.23 R and SUP 16.12.224 R. Threshold conditions and fees and levies reports do not need to be submitted as they are not required under the lowest numbered of the two RAGs in this example, see SUP 16.12.3R (1)(a)(iii).
(2) Example 2
A UK bank that is not a FINREP firm in RAG 1 that also carries on activities in RAG 5
Again, overlaying the RAG 1 reporting requirements with the requirements for a RAG 5 firm gives the following : In this case, it is more obvious that the firm's reporting requirement in RAG 1 is not all the data items listed above. However, for the purposes of this exercise, it is the list of potential data items that is important. Thus comparing RAG 1 with RAG 5, the additional reporting requirements are:
(a) Lending - Business flow and rates, where Section D MLAR is required;
(b) Residential Lending to individuals - New business profile, where Section E MLAR is required;
(c) Lending - Arrears analysis, where Section F MLAR is required;
(d) Mortgage administration - Business profile, where Section G MLAR is required;
(e) Mortgage Administration - Arrears analysis, where Section H MLAR is required
(f) Analysis of loans to customers, where section A3 of MLAR is required
(g) Provisions analysis, where Section B2 of MLAR is required; and
Fees and levies are not applicable as they are not required to be submitted under the lowest numbered RAG in this example. The reporting frequency and submission times for items (a) to (g) above are then derived from the rules applicable to RAG 5 firms in SUP 16.12.18 R.

SUP 16.12.3B

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Firms' attention is drawn to SUP 16.3.25 G regarding a single submission for all firms in the group.

SUP 16.12.4

See Notes

handbook-rule
Table of applicable rules containing data items, frequency and submission periods

SUP 16.12.4A

See Notes

handbook-guidance
RAG 1 includes an incoming EEA firm exercising a BCD right through a UK branch.

Group liquidity reporting

SUP 16.12.4B

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Reporting at group level for liquidity purposes by firms falling within BIPRU 12 (Liquidity) is by reference to defined liquidity groups. Guidance about the different types of defined liquidity groups and related material is set out in SUP 16 Annex 26 (Guidance on designated liquidity groups in SUP 16.12.

Regulated Activity Group 1

SUP 16.12.5

See Notes

handbook-rule
The applicable data items and forms or reports referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to firm type in the table below:

SUP 16.12.6

See Notes

handbook-rule
The applicable reporting frequencies for submission of data items and periods referred to in SUP 16.12.5 R are set out in the table below according to firm type. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise.

SUP 16.12.7

See Notes

handbook-rule
The applicable due dates for submission referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below. The due dates are the last day of the periods given in the table below following the relevant reporting frequency period set out in SUP 16.12.6 R, unless indicated otherwise.

Regulated Activity Group 2.1

SUP 16.12.8

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) The financial reporting requirements for RAG 2.1 activities for insurers, excluding friendly societies, are set out in IPRU(INS).
(2) The financial reporting requirements for RAG 2.1 activities for friendly societies are set out in IPRU(FSOC).
(3) A UK insurance special purpose vehicle must submit a copy of its annual audited financial statements within 3 months of its accounting reference date, but the report is only required if it was audited as a result of a statutory provision other than under the Act.

Regulated Activity Group 3

SUP 16.12.10

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) SUP016.12.11 R to SUP 16.12.13 R do not apply to:
(a) a lead regulated firm (except in relation to data items 47 to 55 (inclusive));
(b) an OPS firm;
(c) a local authority;
(2) A PRA lead regulated firm and an OPS firm must submit a copy of its annual report and audited accounts within 80 business days from its accounting reference date.
(3) A PRA service company must submit a copy of its annual audited financial statements within 6 months from its accounting reference date. However, the firm need only submit this if the report was audited as a result of a statutory provision other than the Act.

SUP 16.12.11B

See Notes

handbook-rule
The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R for UK designated investment firms are set out below:

SUP 16.12.12A

See Notes

handbook-rule
The applicable reporting frequencies for data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise.

SUP 16.12.13A

See Notes

handbook-rule
The applicable due dates for submission referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below. The due dates are the last day of the periods given in the table below following the relevant reporting frequency period set out in SUP 16.12.12A R, unless indicated otherwise.

Regulated Activity Group 4

SUP 16.12.15B

See Notes

handbook-rule
The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R for UK designated investment firms are set out below:

SUP 16.12.16A

See Notes

handbook-rule
The applicable reporting frequencies for data items referred to in SUP 16.12.15B R are set out in the table below. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise.

SUP 16.12.17A

See Notes

handbook-rule
The applicable due dates for submission referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below. The due dates are the last day of the periods given in the table below following the relevant reporting frequency period set out in SUP 16.12.16A, unless indicated otherwise.

Regulated Activity Group 7

SUP 16.12.22C

See Notes

handbook-rule
The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R for UK designated investment firms are set out in the table below:

SUP 16.12.23

See Notes

handbook-rule
The applicable reporting frequencies for data items referred to in SUP 16.12.22A R are set out in the table below. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise.

SUP 16.12.24

See Notes

handbook-rule
The applicable due dates for submission referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below. The due dates are the last day of the periods given in the table below following the relevant reporting frequency period set out in SUP 16.12.23 R, unless indicated otherwise.

Regulated Activity Group 8

SUP 16.12.25C

See Notes

handbook-rule
The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below:

SUP 16.12.26A

See Notes

handbook-rule
The applicable reporting frequencies for data items referred to in SUP 16.12.25C R are set out in the table below. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise.

SUP 16.12.27A

See Notes

handbook-rule
The applicable due dates for submission referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below. The due dates are the last day of the periods given in the table below following the relevant reporting frequency period set out in SUP 16.12.26 R, unless indicated otherwise.

Financial conglomerates

SUP 16.12.32

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) A firm that is a member of a financial conglomerate must submit financial reports to the appropriate regulator in accordance with the table in SUP 16.12.33 R if:
(a) it is at the head of a UK-regulated EEA financial conglomerate; or
(b) its Part 4A permission contains a relevant requirement.
(2) In (1)(b), a relevant requirement is one which:
(a) applies SUP 16.12.33 R to the firm; or
(b) applies SUP 16.12.33 R to the firm unless the mixed financial holding company of the financial conglomerate to which the firm belongs submits the report required under this rule (as if the rule applied to it).

SUP 16.12.33

See Notes

handbook-rule
Financial reports from a member of a financial conglomerate (see SUP 16.12.32 R)

SUP 16.16

Prudent valuation reporting

Application

SUP 16.16.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
This section applies to a UK bank, a UK designated investment firm or a full-scope IFPRU investment firm which meets the condition in SUP 16.16.2 R.

SUP 16.16.2

See Notes

handbook-rule
The condition referred to in SUP 16.16.1 R is that, on its last accounting reference date, the firm had balance sheet positions measured at fair value which, on a gross basis (the sum of the absolute value of each of the assets and liabilities), exceeded £3 billion.

Purpose

SUP 16.16.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
(1) The purpose of this section is to set out the requirements for a firm specified in SUP 16.16.1 R to report the outcomes of its prudent valuation assessments to the appropriate regulator and to do so in a standard format.
(2) The purpose of collecting this data on the prudent valuation assessments made by a firmis to assist the appropriate regulator in assessing the capital resources of firms, to enable the appropriate regulator to gain a wider understanding of the nature and sources of measurement uncertainty in fair-valued financial instruments, and to enable comparison of the nature and level of that measurement uncertainty across firms and over time.

[Note: articles 24 and 105 of the EU CRR]

Reporting requirement

SUP 16.16.4

See Notes

handbook-rule
(1) A firm to which this section applies must submit to the appropriate regulator quarterly (on a calendar year basis and not from a firm's accounting reference date), within six weeks of each quarter end, a Prudent Valuation Return in respect of its fair-value assessments in the format set out in SUP 16 Annex 31A.
(2) A PRA-authorised person to which this section applies must submit the report via electronic mail to prudentvaluationreturns@bankofengland.co.uk or via post or hand delivery to Regulatory Data Group, Statistics and Regulatory Data Division (HO5 A-B), Bank of England, Threadneedle Street, London EC2R 8AH; or via fax to the Regulatory Data Group of the Bank of England (020 7601 3334)

SUP 16.16.5

See Notes

handbook-rule
Where a firm to which SUP 16.16.4 R applies is a member of a consolidation group , the firm must comply with SUP 16.16.4 R:
(1) on an individualconsolidation basis if the firm has an individual consolidation permission, or on an unconsolidated basis if the firm does not have an individual consolidation permission; and
(2) separately, on the basis of the consolidated financial position of the consolidation group. (Firms' attention is drawn to SUP 16.3.25 G regarding a single submission for all firms in the group.)

SUP 16 Annex 13

Return cover sheet

See Notes

handbook-rule
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:



Return Cover Sheet - Forms/sup/sup_chapter16_annex13r_20130401.pdf

SUP 16 Annex 14

Quarterly and annual returns for Credit Unions

SUP 16 Annex 15

Notes on completing the quarterly and annual returns for Credit Unions

SUP 16 Annex 16A

Standing data (See SUP 16.10.4 R)

SUP 16 Annex 16A.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
A: Communications with a firm



1. Name of the firm

2. Trading name(s) of the firm

3.

4. Registered office

5. Principal place of business

6. Website address

7. Complaints contact and complaints officer

8. The name and email address of the primary compliance contact



B: Information about a firm on the Financial Services Register

9.

10.

11.



C: Other information about a firm

12.

13.

14. Name and address of firm's auditor

15.

16. Accounting reference date

17. Locum

SUP 16 Annex 19A

Mortgage Lenders & Administrators Return ('MLAR')

See Notes

handbook-rule
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Mortgage Lenders and Administrators Return ('MLAR') - Forms/sup/sup_Chapter16_annex19ar_20150101.pdf

SUP 16 Annex 19B

Notes for completion of the Mortgage Lenders & Administrators Return ('MLAR')

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Notes for Completion of the Mortgage Lenders and Administrators Return ('MLAR') Forms/sup/sup_chapter16_annex19bg_20150101.pdf

SUP 16 Annex 24

Data items for SUP 16.12

See Notes

handbook-rule
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Data items for SUP 16.12 SUP Chapter 16 Annex 24 R

SUP 16 Annex 25A

Guidance notes for data items in SUP 16 Annex 24R

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:
Guidance notes for data items in SUP 16 Annex 24R - Forms/sup/SUP16_Annex25A.pdf

SUP 16 Annex 26

Guidance on designated liquidity groups in SUP 16.12

See Notes

handbook-guidance

SUP 16 Annex 31A

Prudent Valuation Return

See Notes

handbook-rule
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Prudent Valuation Return - SUP 16 Annex 31AR

SUP 16 Annex 31B

Guidance notes for data items in SUP 16 Annex 31AR

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Guidance notes for data items in SUP 16 Annex 31AR - SUP 16 Annex 31BG

SUP 16 Annex 32

Bidding in emissions auctions return

See Notes

handbook-rule
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Bidding in emissions auctions return - SUP 16 Annex 32 R

SUP 16 Annex 35A

Close Links Monthly Report

See Notes

handbook-rule
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:



SUP 16 Annex 35AR

SUP 16 Annex 35B

Guidance notes for completion of the close links monthly report in SUP 16 Annex 35AR

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:



SUP 16 Annex 35BG

SUP 16 Annex 36A

Close Links Annual Report

See Notes

handbook-rule
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

SUP 16 Annex 36AR

SUP 16 Annex 36B

Guidance notes for completion of close links annual report in SUP 16 Annex 36AR

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

SUP 16 Annex 36BG

SUP 16 Annex 37A

Controllers Report

See Notes

handbook-rule
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

SUP 16 Annex 37AR

SUP 16 Annex 37B

Guidance notes for completion of controllers report in SUP 16 Annex 37AR

See Notes

handbook-guidance
This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

SUP 16 Annex 37BG

Export chapter as

SUP App 2

Insurers: Regulatory intervention points and run-off plans

SUP App 2.1

Application

SUP App 2.1.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
SUP App 2.1 to 2.15 apply to every friendly societythat is an insurer.

SUP App 2.1.3

See Notes

handbook-rule
SUP App 2.16 applies to the Society.

SUP App 2.1.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
SUP App 2.15 applies to an insurer carrying on with-profits business, but only if COBS 20.2.53 R (Ceasing to effect new contracts of insurance in a with-profits fund) also applies.

SUP App 2.2

Interpretation

SUP App 2.2.1

See Notes

handbook-rule

For the purpose of SUP App 2.1 to 2.14:

  1. (1) "capital resources":
    1. (a) in relation to a non-directive friendly society, has the meaning given to "margin of solvency" in rule 4.1(4) of IPRU(FSOC);
    2. (b) in relation to a participating insurance undertaking, means P+T, where P and T have the meanings given by INSPRU 6.1.45R (3)(a) and (e) respectively, as calculated in accordance with INSPRU 6.1.43 R ; and
    3. (c) in relation to any other firm, means the firm's capital resources as calculated in accordance with GENPRU 2.2.17 R;
  2. (2) "guarantee fund":
    1. (a) in relation to a non-directive friendly society, has the meaning given to that term in IPRU(FSOC);
    2. (b) in relation to a participating insurance undertaking, means the amount of capital resources which that firm must hold to comply with INSPRU 6.1.45R (2);
    3. (c) in relation to a firm which is not covered by (a) or (b), carrying on general insurance business, means the amount of capital resources which that firm must hold to comply with GENPRU 2.2.34 R; and
    4. (d) in relation to a firm which is not covered by (a) or (b), carrying on long-term insurance business, means the amount of capital resources which that firm must hold to comply with GENPRU 2.2.33 R;
  3. (3) "material transaction" means a transaction (when aggregated with any similar transactions) in which:
    1. (a) the price actually paid or received for the transfer of assets or liabilities or the performance of services; or
    2. (b) the price which would have been paid or received had that transaction been negotiated at arm's length between unconnected parties;
    3. exceeds:
    4. (c) in the case of a firm which carries on long-term insurance business, but not general insurance business, the sum of €20,000 and 5% of the firm's liabilities arising from its long-term insurance business, excluding property-linked liabilities and net of reinsurance ceded; or
    5. (d) in the case of a firm which carries on general insurance business, but not long-term insurance business, the sum of €20,000 and 5% of the firm's liabilities arising from its general insurance business, net of reinsurance ceded; or
    6. (e) in the case of a firm which carries on both long-term insurance business and general insurance business:
      1. (i) where the transaction is in connection with the firm's long-term insurance business, the sum of €20,000 and 5% of the firm's liabilities arising from its long-term insurance business, excluding property-linked liabilities and net of reinsurance ceded; and
      2. (ii) in all other cases, the sum of €20,000 and 5% of the firm's liabilities arising from its general insurance business, net of reinsurance ceded; and
  4. (4) "required margin of solvency":
    1. (a) in relation to a non-directive friendly society, has the meaning given to that term in IPRU(FSOC);
    2. (b) in relation to a participating insurance undertaking, means R-S-U, where R, S and U have the meanings given by INSPRU 6.1.45R (3)(c), (d) and (f) respectively;
    3. (c) in relation to a firm which is not covered by (a) or (b), carrying on general insurance business, means the general insurance capital requirement applicable to that firm; and
    4. (d) in relation to a firm which is not covered by (a) or (b), carrying on long-term insurance business, means the long-term insurance capital requirement applicable to that firm.

SUP App 2.2.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance


The calculation of each of the base capital resources requirement, the long-term insurance capital requirement and the general insurance capital requirement is set out in GENPRU 2.1 . The calculation of each of the "guarantee fund" and "required margin of solvency" for non-directive friendly societies is set out in chapter 4 of IPRU(FSOC).

SUP App 2.3

Purpose

SUP App 2.3.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
To fulfil its obligations under the Insurance Directives, and as part of the PRA's risk-based approach to supervision, there are certain times when the PRA needs to monitor a firm more closely than it normally would. This is so the PRA can fulfil its function of supervising the safety and soundness of firms properly and meet the statutory objective of securing an appropriate degree of protection for policyholders .

SUP App 2.3.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The rules in SUP App 2.1 to 2.14require a firm to submit reports and information to the PRA when:
(1) a firm is failing to satisfy threshold condition 4D or 5D as applicable, and its capital resources have fallen below its required margin of solvency, or its guarantee fund; or
(2) the capital resources of a firm have fallen below its capital resources requirement; or
(3) a firm has decided to cease to effect new contracts of insurance; or
(4) a firm is going through periods of potential uncertainty, for example, when it has come under the control of a new parent undertaking or following the grant or variation of permission.

SUP App 2.3.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The PRA may also ask a firm to submit reports and information to it when the firm's capital resources fall below the level advised in individual capital guidance given to the firm.

SUP App 2.3.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
In accordance with the Insurance Directives, a firm whose capital resources have fallen below its required margin of solvency, or its guarantee fund, is required, by the rule set out in this appendix, to submit a scheme of operations, together with an explanation of how its capital resources will be adequately restored. In order to secure an appropriate degree of protection for policyholders , the PRA applies the rule in this appendix to firms to which the provisions of the Insurance Directives would not otherwise apply.

SUP App 2.3.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
A firm which is entering into run-off is required to submit a scheme of operations, including an explanation of how its liabilities to policyholders will be met in full. Where the capital resources of such a firm subsequently fall below its required margin of solvency, the firm is required to submit a plan for restoration.

SUP App 2.3.6

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Following a change in control, or the grant or variation of permission, the reports submitted help the PRA to identify when a firm departs from the scheme of operations submitted as part of the notification of a change in control, or an application for the grant or variation of permission, and on which basis such notification or application was approved.

SUP App 2.3.7

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Principle 4 of the PRA's Principles for Businesses provides that firm's should hold adequate financial resources, while GENPRU 1.2.26 R requires a firm to maintain overall financial resources which are adequate to ensure that there is no significant risk that it cannot meet its liabilities as they fall due. In considering these requirements, a firm may decide to maintain capital resources above the level advised in individual capital guidance given by the PRA , or, if no individual capital guidance has been given, above its capital resources requirement. The amount of any such additional capital resources held is at the discretion of the firm. However, the extent to which a firm matches these additional capital resources to the volatility of its capital base, in conjunction with the strength of its systems and controls environment, is likely to affect the frequency with which it is subject to intervention under this appendix.

SUP App 2.3.8

See Notes

handbook-guidance
In relation to a firm carrying on with-profits insurance business, action which it takes either to restore its capital resources to the levels set by the intervention points in this appendix, or to prevent its capital resources falling below those points, should be consistent with Principle 6 of the FCA's Principles for Businesses. The FCA's Principle 6 requires a firm to pay due regard to the interests of its customers and treat them fairly.

SUP App 2.3.9

See Notes

handbook-guidance
These rules are in addition to the other rules and guidance in SUP and in the PRA Rulebook.

SUP App 2.4

Capital resources below guarantee fund

SUP App 2.4.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a firm's capital resources fall below its guarantee fund, it must, within 14 days of the firm becoming aware of this event, submit to the PRA a short-term financial plan, including:
(2) an explanation of how, if at all, and by when, it expects its capital resources to be adequately restored to the guarantee fund.

SUP App 2.4.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
See SUP App 2.11.2 G for guidance on the period that the scheme of operations should cover.

SUP App 2.5

Capital resources below required margin of solvency

SUP App 2.5.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
Unless SUP App 2.5.3 R applies:
(1) if a firm's capital resources are such that they no longer equal or exceed its required margin of solvency; or
(2) if a firm no longer complies with GENPRU 2.2.32 R and GENPRU 2.2.28 R, or INSPRU 6.1.45R (1)(a) and INSPRU 6.1.45R (1)(b), as applicable;


it must, within 28 days of becoming aware of this event, submit to the PRA a plan for the restoration of a sound financial position, including:
(4) an explanation of how, if at all, and by when:
(a) it expects its capital resources to be restored to the required margin of solvency; or
(b) as the case may be, it expects to comply with GENPRU 2.2.32 R and GENPRU 2.2.28 R, or INSPRU 6.1.45R (1)(a) and INSPRU 6.1.45R (1)(b), as applicable.

SUP App 2.5.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
See SUP App 2.11.2 G for guidance on the period that the scheme of operations should cover.

SUP App 2.5.3

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a firm:
(2) it has previously submitted either a run-off plan in accordance with SUP App 2.8.1 R or a scheme of operations in accordance with SUP App 2.5.1 R;


it must, within 28 days of becoming aware that it falls into SUP App 2.5.1 R (1) or SUP App 2.5.1 R (2):
(3) notify the PRA ; and
(4) submit a plan for restoration which:
(a) explains why the firm's capital resources have fallen below its required margin of solvency or, as the case may be, it no longer complies with GENPRU 2.2.32 R or GENPRU 2.2.28 R, or INSPRU 6.1.45R (1)(a) and INSPRU 6.1.45R (1)(b), as applicable; and
(b) demonstrates how, if at all, and by when, the firm will restore it or, as the case may be, resume compliance with GENPRU 2.2.32 R and GENPRU 2.2.28 R, or INSPRU 6.1.45R (1)(a) and INSPRU 6.1.45R (1)(b), as applicable.

SUP App 2.6

Capital resources below capital resources requirement

SUP App 2.6.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
Unless any of SUP App 2.4.1 R, SUP App 2.5.1 R or SUP App 2.5.3 R applies, if a firm's capital resources fall below its capital resources requirement, it must, within 28 days of becoming aware of this event:
(1) notify the PRA ; and
(2) submit a plan for restoration, which:
(a) explains why the firm's capital resources have fallen below its capital resources requirement; and
(b) demonstrates how, if at all, and by when, the firm will restore it.

SUP App 2.7

Capital resources below the level of individual capital guidance

SUP App 2.7.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Unless any of SUP App 2.4.1 R, SUP App 2.5.1 R, SUP App 2.5.3 R or SUP App 2.6.1 R applies, if a firm's circumstances change, such that its capital resources have fallen, or are expected to fall, below the level advised in individual capital guidance given to the firm by the appropriate regulator , then, consistent with PRIN 2.1.1 RPrinciple 11 (Relations with regulators), a firm should inform the appropriate regulator of this fact as soon as practicable, explaining why capital resources have fallen, or are expected to fall, below the level advised in individual capital guidance , and:
(1) what action the firm intends to take to increase its capital resources; or
(2) what modification the firm considers should be made to the individual capital guidance which it has been given.

SUP App 2.7.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
In the circumstance set out in SUP App 2.7.1 G, the PRA may ask a firm for alternative or more detailed proposals and plans or further assessments and analyses of capital adequacy and risks faced by the firm. The PRA will seek to agree with the firm appropriate timescales and scope for any such additional work, in light of the circumstances which have arisen.

SUP App 2.7.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
In relation to a firm carrying on with-profits insurance business, if it intends either (a) to remedy a fall in the level of capital resources advised in its individual capital guidance , or (b) to prevent a fall in the level advised in that guidance, for example, in either case, by taking management action to de-risk a with-profits fund or by reducing non-contractual benefits for policyholders, it should explain to the appropriate regulator how such proposed actions are consistent with the firm's obligations under the FCA's Principle 6 (Customers' interests).

SUP App 2.7.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If a firm's capital resources fall below the level advised in individual capital guidance given to the firm and, at the same time, any one or more of SUP App 2.4.1 R, SUP App 2.5.1 R, SUP App 2.5.3 R or SUP App 2.6.1 R applies, the firm should first comply with those rules. Those rules are concerned with circumstances where capital resources are likely to have fallen to levels much lower than the level advised in individual capital guidance and are, in some cases, requirements imposed by the Insurance Directives.

SUP App 2.7.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
If a firm has not accepted individual capital guidance given by the PRA it should, nevertheless, inform the PRA as soon as practicable if its capital resources have fallen below the level suggested by that individual capital guidance . In such circumstances, the PRA may ask the firm for further explanation as to why it does not consider the individual capital guidance to be appropriate. The PRA may also consider using its powers under section 55M of the Act to, on its own initiative, require a firm to hold such capital as the PRA considers is necessary for the firm to comply with GENPRU 1.2.26 R .

SUP App 2.8

Ceasing to effect contracts of insurance

SUP App 2.8.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
If a firm decides to cease to effect new contracts of insurance, it must, within 28 days of that decision, submit a run-off plan to the appropriate regulator including:
(2) an explanation of how, or to what extent, all liabilities to policyholders (including, where relevant, liabilities which arise from the regulatory duty to treat customers fairly in setting discretionary benefits) will be met in full as they fall due.

SUP App 2.8.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
SUP App 2.8.1 R only applies if a firm ceases to effecting new contracts of insurance in respect of the whole of its insurance business.

SUP App 2.8.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
For the purposes of SUP App 2.8.1 R, a new contracts of insurance excludes contracts effected under a term in a subsisting contract of insurance.

SUP App 2.8.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
Under Principle 11, the appropriate regulator normally expects to be notified by a firm when it decides to cease effecting new contracts of insurance in respect of one or more classes of contract of insurance (see SUP 15.3.8 G). At the same time, the appropriate regulator would normally expect the firm to discuss with it the need for the firm to apply to vary its permission (see SUP 6.2.6 G and SUP 6.2.7 G) and, if appropriate, to submit a scheme of operations in accordance with SUP App 2.8.1 R.

SUP App 2.8.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
See SUP App 2.11.2 G for guidance on the period that the scheme of operations should cover.

SUP App 2.10

Grant or variation of permission

SUP App 2.10.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The PRA may ask a firm seeking a grant or variation of permission to provide a scheme of operations as part of the application process (see SUP 6.3.25 G). Such a firm is not required to submit to the PRA a further scheme of operations under this appendix unless SUP App 2.4, SUP App 2.5 or SUP App 2.8 applies. SUP App 2.13 and SUP 6 Annex 4 do, however, apply to such a firm.

SUP App 2.11

Submission of a scheme of operations or a plan for restoration

SUP App 2.11.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
A firm should discuss its plan in draft with the PRA before submitting it. If a plan is submitted which does not satisfy the PRA that the firm can restore its capital resources (as appropriate), or meet its liabilities as they fall due, the PRA may use its own-initiative power to vary or cancel the firm's permission. If a firm submitting a plan is part of a group of companies, the PRA may ask that firm to provide additional information in relation to other companies in the group, if this is necessary to establish how the firm will restore its own sound financial position. The firm should agree in discussion with the PRA the nature of such additional information.

SUP App 2.11.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The schemes of operations required when a firm's capital resources have fallen below its required margin of solvency or its guarantee fund (see SUP App 2.5.1 R and SUP App 2.4.1 R, respectively) should cover a period which is sufficient to demonstrate that the firm's capital resources will be adequately restored. Typically this would be a period of at least three years. However, if a scheme of operations has expired, but SUP App 2.4.1 R or SUP App 2.5.1 R continues to apply, the firm should submit a new scheme of operations. The scheme of operations required by SUP App 2.8.1 R, when a firm ceases to effect new contracts of insurance, should cover the run-off period until all liabilities to policyholders are met.

SUP App 2.11.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The period to be covered by, and the details to be included in, the plan for restoration required by SUP App 2.5.3 R will depend on the circumstances of the firm, why its capital resources have fallen below its required margin of solvency and the degree of risk that that fall will be repeated, even if the firm restores its capital resources in accordance with its plan.

SUP App 2.11.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
In relation to a firm which carries on with-profits insurance business and which submits a plan, the appropriate regulator would expect an explanation of how any actions it plans to take to restore capital resources to the level of the guarantee fund, required margin of solvency or capital resources requirement are consistent with the firm's obligations under the FCA's Principle 6 (Customers' interests).

SUP App 2.12

Content of a scheme of operations

SUP App 2.12.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
A scheme of operations must:
(1) describe the firm's business strategy;
(2) include financial projections (including appropriate scenarios and stress-tests) as follows:
(a) a forecast summary profit and loss account in accordance with SUP App 2.12.7 R;
(b) a forecast summary balance sheet in accordance with SUP App 2.12.8 R; and
(c) a forecast statement of capital resources in accordance with SUP App 2.12.9 R; and
(3) as at the end of each financial year which falls (in whole or part) within the period to which the scheme of operations relates:
(a) describe the assumptions which underlie those forecasts and the reasons for adopting those assumptions; and
(b) identify any material transactions proposed to be effected or carried out with, or in respect of, any associate.

SUP App 2.12.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The business strategy referred to at SUP App 2.12.1R (1) should include a description of the nature of the risks which the firm is underwriting, or intends to underwrite. It should also give an explanation of the firm's strategy for managing the risks associated with carrying on insurance business (including, in particular, reinsurance).

SUP App 2.12.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The amount of detail to be given on the firm's business strategy required by SUP App 2.12.1R (1) should be appropriate to the scale and complexity of the firm's operations and the degree of risk involved.

SUP App 2.12.4

See Notes

handbook-rule
The information required by SUP App 2.12.1R (1) must reflect the nature and content of the rules relating to capital resources applicable to a firm.

SUP App 2.12.5

See Notes

handbook-guidance
In relation to firms covered by SUP App 2.1 to 2.14, IPRU(FSOC) 4.1 sets out the rules relating to capital resources for non-directive friendly societies and GENPRU 2.1, GENPRU 2.2 and INSPRU 6.1 set out the rules relating to capital resources for every other firm. The capital resources which a firm is required to maintain vary according to whether the firm has its head office in the United Kingdom or overseas, and depending on the nature of the insurance business it carries on. The information which a firm is required to submit under SUP App 2.12.1 R should reflect the nature and content of the rules relating to capital resources identified above. For example, in order to satisfy SUP App 2.12.1 R, a firm with its head office outside the United Kingdom which is carrying on direct insurance business in the United Kingdom should submit separate information concerning its world-wide activities and its UK activities.

SUP App 2.12.6

See Notes

handbook-guidance
To reflect its obligations under GENPRU 2.2.22 G or IPRU(FSOC) 4.1(2) (as applicable), in order to comply with SUP App 2.12.1 R, a firm which carries on both long-term insurance business and general insurance business should submit separate information for each type of insurance business.

SUP App 2.12.7

See Notes

handbook-rule
Summary profit and loss account (see SUP App 2.12.1R (2)(a))

SUP App 2.12.8

See Notes

handbook-rule
Summary balance sheet (see SUP App 2.12.1R (2)(b))

SUP App 2.12.9

See Notes

handbook-rule
A forecast statement of capital resources (under SUP App 2.12.1R (2)(c)) must include the forecast capital resources and the forecast required margin of solvency at the end of each financial year or part financial year.

SUP App 2.13

Obligations on firms which have previously submitted a scheme of operations

SUP App 2.13.1

See Notes

handbook-rule
A firm which has submitted a scheme of operations to the PRA, whether required by SUP App 2.4, SUP App 2.5 or SUP App 2.8, or as part of an application under Permissions and Waivers 2 of the PRA Rulebook or SUP 11.5 (see SUP 11.5.5 G), or an amended scheme of operations, must during the period covered by that scheme of operations:
(1) notify the PRA at least 28 days before entering into or carrying out any material transaction with, or in respect of, an associate, unless that transaction is in accordance with a scheme of operations which has been submitted to the PRA;
(2) submit a quarterly financial return to the PRA which must include for, or as at the end of, each quarter:
(a) a summary profit and loss account prepared in accordance with SUP App 2.12.7 R;
(b) a summary balance sheet prepared in accordance with SUP App 2.12.8 R; and
(c) a statement of capital resources prepared in accordance with SUP App 2.12.9 R;


and which must identify and explain differences between the actual results and the forecasts submitted in the scheme of operations; and
(3) notify the PRA promptly of any matter which has either happened or is likely to happen and which represents a significant departure from the scheme of operations; the firm must either:
(a) explain the nature of the departure and the reasons for it and provide revised forecast financial information in the scheme of operations for its remaining term; or
(b) include an amended scheme of operations and explain the amendments and the reasons for them.

SUP App 2.13.2

See Notes

handbook-rule
A report under SUP App 2.13.1R (2) must be submitted in accordance with the rules in SUP 16.3.6R to SUP 16.3.13R.

SUP App 2.13.3

See Notes

handbook-guidance
For the purpose of SUP App 2.13.1R (1), the PRA considers that transactions with, or in respect of, associates include:
(1) contracting (as either party), advancing, repaying, writing off or agreeing to change the terms of any loan;
(2) entering into (in any capacity), releasing, calling upon or agreeing to change the terms of any guarantee, pledge, security, charge or any off-balance-sheet transaction;
(3) entering into agreements to acquire or dispose of property or which otherwise affect the nature or value of the firm's assets;
(4) making an investment (directly or indirectly) in an associate;
(5) entering into (as either party), commuting or agreeing to change the terms of, any contract of reinsurance; and
(6) entering into, or changing the terms of, any agreement to give or provide services or to share costs.

SUP App 2.13.4

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The PRA considers that a significant departure referred to in SUP App 2.13.1R (3) includes:
(1) entry or withdrawal from a line of insurance business;
(2) significant revision of the firm's strategy for managing risks, in particular the basis upon which risks are reinsured;
(3) forecast premiums being exceeded, by more than 10%, for a single financial year (or part year if the period covered by the scheme of operations is or includes part of a financial year);
(4) claims experience being significantly worse than forecast for a single financial year (or part year if the period covered by the scheme of operations is or includes part of a financial year);
(5) the actual level of capital resources being significantly worse than forecast;
(6) paid or proposed dividends being greater than those forecast; and
(7) any other transaction or circumstance which is likely to have a material effect upon available assets (as defined in IPRU(INS) 11.1).

SUP App 2.14

Financial Recovery Plan

SUP App 2.14.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
When:
(1) the PRA has required a financial recovery plan within the meaning of article 20a of the First Non-Life Directive;
(2) the PRA is of the view that policyholders' rights are threatened because the financial position of the firm is deteriorating; and
(3) the PRA decides to require the firm to hold more capital than would otherwise be required under the Handbook to ensure that the firm will be able to fulfil the required margin of solvency in the near future;


any such higher capital requirement will be based on the financial recovery plan.

SUP App 2.16

Regulatory intervention points for Lloyd's

Application

Interpretation

SUP App 2.16.2

See Notes

handbook-rule
For the purpose of SUP App 2.16 and the application of SUP App 2 to the Society:
(1) "capital resources", as the context requires:
(a) in relation to the Society's own capital resources, means its own capital resources calculated in accordance with the capital resources table;
(b) in relation to a member's capital resources, means the member's capital resources calculated in accordance with GENPRU 2.3.22 R;
(c) in relation to the aggregate capital resources of the Society and the members supporting the insurance business of the members, means the aggregate of the capital resources in (1)(a) and (b) but excluding the Society's callable contributions;
(2) "guarantee fund":
(a) in relation to the general insurance business carried on by members, means the amount of capital resources required in order to comply with GENPRU 2.2.26 R, GENPRU 2.3.17 G and GENPRU 2.3.26 R; and the "member's share of the guarantee fund" for general insurance business means the result of the calculation set out in GENPRU 2.3.27 R;
(b) in relation to the long-term insurance business carried on by members, means the amount of capital resources required in order to comply with GENPRU 2.2.25 R and GENPRU 2.3.17 G; and the "member's share of the guarantee fund" for long-term insurance business means the result of the calculation set out in GENPRU 2.3.25 R;
(3) "required margin of solvency":
(a) in relation to the general insurance business carried on by members, means the higher of the Society GICR and the general insurance capital requirement for the members in aggregate; and
(b) in relation to the long-term insurance business carried on by members, means the long-term insurance capital requirement for the members in aggregate.

Capital resources below guarantee fund

SUP App 2.16.3

See Notes

handbook-rule
For the purposes of SUP App 2.4.1 R and SUP App 2.4.2 G, capital resources will have fallen below the guarantee fund if the Society's own capital resources are such that they are no longer sufficient to meet the aggregate of, for each member, the amount, if any, by which the member's capital resources fall short of the member's share of the guarantee fund.

Capital resources below required margin of solvency

SUP App 2.16.4

See Notes

handbook-rule
For the purposes of SUP App 2.5.1 R to SUP App 2.5.3 R, capital resources will be such that they no longer equal or exceed the required solvency margin if the Society's own capital resources are insufficient to meet the aggregate of, for each member, the amount, if any, by which the member's capital resources fall short of the member's share of the required solvency margin.

Capital resources below capital resources requirement

SUP App 2.16.5

See Notes

handbook-rule
For the purposes of SUP App 2.6.1 R, capital resources will have fallen below the capital resources requirement if the Society's own capital resources are insufficient to meet the aggregate of, for each member, the amount, if any, by which the member's capital resources fall short of the member's share of the capital resources requirement for the members in aggregate.

Capital resources below the level of individual capital guidance

SUP App 2.16.6

See Notes

handbook-guidance
For the purposes of SUP App 2.7.1 G to SUP App 2.7.5 G, capital resources will have fallen below the level of individual capital guidance if the Society's own capital resources have fallen below the level advised in individual capital guidance given to the Society in respect of those capital resources.

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Transitional Provisions and Schedules

SUP TP 1

Transitional provisions

SUP TP 1.1

Transitional provisions applying to the Supervision manual only

SUP TP 1.2
SUP TP 1.3

[deleted]

SUP TP 1.4

[deleted]

SUP TP 1.5

[expired]

SUP TP 1.6

[deleted]

SUP TP 3

Transitional provisions relating to SUP 10A and SUP 10B: Transition from the FSA to the FCA and PRA

SUP Sch 1

Record keeping requirements

SUP Sch 1.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance

SUP Sch 1.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance

SUP Sch 5A

Rights of actions for damages

SUP Sch 5A.1

See Notes

handbook-guidance
The table below sets out the rules in SUP contravention of which by an authorised person may be actionable under section 138D of the Act (Actions for damages) by a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention.

SUP Sch 5A.2

See Notes

handbook-guidance

SUP Sch 6

Rules that can be waived

SUP Sch 6.1B

See Notes

handbook-guidance
As a result of section 138A of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules) the PRA has power to waive all its rules, other than rules made under section 137O (Threshold condition code). However, if the rules incorporate requirements laid down in European directives, it will not be possible for the PRA to grant a waiver that would be incompatible with the United Kingdom's responsibilities under those directives.

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